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Exam Code: EVP-101
Exam Name: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 31 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

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NO.2 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

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NO.3 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-547
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators )
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Total Q&A: 203 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as private
LUNs?
A. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
B. File System Wizard
C. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
D. Celera Setup Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Linux kernel supports dynamic LUN scanning?
A. 2.3
B. 2.4
C. 2.5
D. 2.6
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

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NO.5 At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the preferred method for partitioning VNX FC LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2008 R2
host?
A. Disk Management
B. fdisk
C. format
D. vtoc
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data Protection
Advisor.?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

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NO.8 What happens when a new CFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check
boxes remain unchecked?
A. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CFS server
B. A global share Is created and served by the primary VDM
C. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover
D. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share
Answer: D

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NO.9 What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does the acronym "CHAP" refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which failover mode must be configured to use vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
functionality?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.12 After presenting a LUN to a Linux host, which utility is used to configure a partition?
A. fdisk
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. Unisphere Service Manager
D. Disk Management
Answer: A

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NO.13 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a windows server 2003 host,
but the quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
C. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
Answer: A

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NO.14 In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
B. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
C. It relocates more active data from tier 1storage without users noticing the difference.
D. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
Answer: B

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NO.15 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured cloned LUN?
A. The peer SP acquires the feature logs
B. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the feature logs
D. Neither the clone LUN nor the feature logs will be acquired by the peer SP
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Unisphere storage role will limit a user to the administration of the file system checkpoints, LUN
mirrors, and replication manager tasks?
A. Data recovery
B. Administration
C. Data protection
D. NAS administrator
Answer: C

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NO.17 A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size value.
What will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system will not be extended
B. The extend size value cannot by less than the die system size
C. The file system is extended by the extend_size value
D. The file system is extended by five percent of its size
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
C. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on
D. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
Answer: B

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NO.19 What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured
B. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is
D. All clones will be fractured
Answer: B

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NO.20 When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to
an active VNX Data Mover
How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-918
Exam Name: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.4 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.6 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.7 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.8 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.11 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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NO.13 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.14 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-555
Exam Name: EMC (Isilon Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
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Total Q&A: 225 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 When an Isilon SyncIQ replication job completes, how many SnapshotIQ policies can be
created on a target cluster directory?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the maximum volume or aggregate size that can be created with an Isilon Scale-Out
NAS system?
A. 16 TB
B. 100 TB
C. 2.3 PB
D. 20 PB
Answer: D

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NO.3 -- Exhibit -
We have been engaged by a research hospital to help upgrade their Isilon installation.
They currently have 12 previous generation Isilon nodes with 200TB of capacity and run on a 1Gbps
network.
They currently have 6 Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers and an HPC cluster to process data.
They would like to expand Isilon to 2PB of active data and 1PB of archive data.
They use a third party data and metadata management service (IRODs) to stage data for analysis.
The Isilon cluster is mainly used for analysis work with the HPC cluster.
-- Exhibit -
The customer will add two more Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers in the next 6 months.
Once these are added, what is the total amount of data from all the sequencers they can expect to
add per month?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 4.8 TB
C. 1.2 TB
D. 14.4 TB
Answer: A

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NO.4 -- Exhibit -
A large manufacturing company is an existing Isilon customer with a cluster consisting of four NL400
nodes with 4TB drives. The cluster is using N+2:1 protection level and the file system shows that it is
60% utilized. Home directories and file shares comprise 75% of the existing content and the
remainder is inactive deep archive. The company has 1,000 employees using Windows and Mac
clients participating in a single Active Directory (AD) forest.
During a meeting with the CIO and Director of IT you discuss the company's recent acquisition - an
engineering firm that specializes in Computer Aided Design (CAD). The engineering firm has 400
UNIX workstations that produce technical drawings which are currently stored on another vendor's
SAN solution. The all UNIX environment uses NIS for authentication and name resolution. They do
not currently use DNS or LDAP . The engineering company has an old storage system that has been
experiencing problems and the CIO would like you to migrate the data onto the Isilon cluster. The
CIO would like to eliminate all tape and recover the data onto disk.
The CIO is concerned about security of the company's intellectual property, especially with the rapid
adoption of mobile devices and external cloud content sharing services such as DropBox, Egnyte,
and SugarSync. They would like to implement an alternative that provides external file sharing and
mobile device synchronization while maintaining security control over the company's data.
The Director of IT reports that users are storing non-work related content on the Isilon cluster. They
would like to limit the amount of capacity that each user can consume in their home directory and
want to ensure you provide the capability to easily visualize which users are over their
allotment.The company's Windows users currently leverage Windows Shadow Copy to recover files
that have been accidentally deleted. The IT department wants to ensure that Mac and incoming
UNIX clients have the same functionality.
The Director of IT also mentions that users are reporting slow response times when browsing their
home directories and shared folders. They are concerned that Isilon cannot scale to support their
combined requirements.
-- Exhibit -
Based on the meeting with the customer, which Isilon cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. 4 x X400 nodes with 2 x SSD and 34 x 4TB drives 1 x Additional NL400
B. 6 x X400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives 1 x Backup Accelerator
C. 4 x NL400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives
D. 9 x S200 nodes with 2 x SSD and 22 x 900GB SAS
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer created one month of snapshots; one snapshot every 8 hours for 30 days on an
Isilon cluster using SnapshotIQ. They are now deleting the snapshots randomly and experiencing
overhead to the cluster.
How can the snapshots be removed while avoiding the overhead caused by this process?
A. Delete the snapshots in order
B. Use SmartPools to move the snapshot data to a different tier
C. Snapshots cannot be deleted
D. Remove the directory
Answer: A

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NO.6 An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an
Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory. The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster
does not automatically allow writes to the data in the replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover
is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target
cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data
on the target directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available
for use by SyncIQ.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source
broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses
and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Answer: A

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NO.8 At a minimum, how many connected and available nodes are required to maintain quorum in
a 25-node cluster?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Answer: C

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NO.9 A Media and Entertainment company is considering changing from 2K resolution to 4K
resolution. They will continue to use the DNxHD 220 codec.
Assuming everything else stays the same, how will this change affect storage?
A. Storage will be half as large
B. Storage requirements will not change
C. Storage will be twice as large
D. Storage will be four times as large
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does Isilon OneFS use to re-write data when a disk read fails?
A. Dynamic Sector Repair
B. NVRAM
C. Isilon Data Integrity
D. CRC
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor's offering. They currently
have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years,
which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI
and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon's OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID
based NAS solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other
competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance
may degrade.
D. Isilon's OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than
competitive offerings.
Answer: A

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NO.12 An Isilon customer has an environment supporting a wide range of different workloads. They
want to assign clients to performance tiers based on the resources needed.
What can the customer use to meet this requirement?
A. SmartConnect Zones
B. Load Balancing
C. Client Connection Zone
D. SmartPools Advanced
Answer: A

EMC   E20-555 answers real questions   E20-555

NO.13 A NetApp customer is considering Isilon. They use their filers for UNIX home directories, and
would like to see a suggested configuration that would meet their needs.
What would you do to help size this cluster?
A. Ask for an autosupport file and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
B. Ask them to install InsightIQ and collect data from the filer, then import to SQL for analysis
C. Ask for the output from nfsstat and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
D. Use tcpdump and upload the output file to MiTrends to generate a protocol analysis
Answer: C

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NO.14 An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage.
Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools
Answer: C

EMC original questions   E20-555 exam simulations   E20-555   E20-555

NO.15 If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are
required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone
delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member's IP address and an SRV record
to provide resolution services
C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect
zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each
SmartConnect zone
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-76
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Test)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 290 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following cryptographic system services assures the receiver that the received message
has not been altered?
A. Authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Non-repudiation
D. Integrity
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL original questions   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.2 Pete works as a Network Security Officer for Gentech Inc. He wants to encrypt his network traffic. The
specific requirement for the encryption algorithm is that it must be a symmetric key block cipher. Which of
the following techniques will he use to fulfill this requirement?
A. AES
B. DES
C. IDEA
D. PGP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Mark is the project manager of the HAR Project. The project is scheduled to last for eighteen months
and six months already passed. Management asks Mark that how often the project team is participating in
the risk reassessment of this project. What should Mark tell management if he is following the best
practices for risk management.?
A. At every status meeting of the project team, project risk management is an agenda item.
B. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary
software or program between two communicating hosts?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Denial-of-service attack
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the simulation of the disaster recovery plans?
A. Walk-through test
B. Full operational test
C. Paper test
D. Preparedness test
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is established during the Business Impact Analysis by the owner of a process in
accepted business continuity planning methodology?
A. Recovery Consistency Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Point Objective
D. Recovery Time Actual
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?
A. Cold backup site
B. Hot backup site
C. Warm backup site
D. Mobile backup site
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a
fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Utility model
D. Copyright
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern
that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change.
What is this called?
A. Availability
B. Non repudiation
C. Confidentiality
D. Data Protection
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following control measures are considered while creating a disaster recovery plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Detective measures
B. Supportive measures
C. Corrective measures
D. Preventive measures
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements are true about classless routing protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. The same subnet mask is used everywhere on the network.
B. They extend the IP addressing scheme.
C. IGRP is a classless routing protocol.
D. They support VLSM and discontiguous networks.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following takes
over when a 'disaster' situation occurs?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Continuity Management
D. Service Reporting
Answer: C

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NO.13 IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) is used to support the overall Business Continuity
Management (BCM) in order to ensure that the required IT infrastructure and the IT service provision are
recovered within an agreed business time scales. Which of the following are the benefits of implementing
IT Service Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It prioritizes the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM.
B. It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing.
C. It confirms competence, impartiality, and performance capability of an organization that performs
audits.
D. It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 Which of the following are some of the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Team members list
C. Risk analysis
D. Project schedule
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following options is an intellectual property right to protect inventions?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Utility model
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76

NO.16 Fill in the blank with the appropriate number:
RAID-________ is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0.
A. 10
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76   312-76 questions

NO.17 Which of the following response teams aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident
prevention, to prompt rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members
and the community at large?
A. CERT
B. CSIRT
C. FedCIRC
D. FIRST
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency action team
B. Emergency-management team
C. Damage-assessment team
D. Off-site storage team
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 answers real questions   312-76

NO.19 Which of the following roles is responsible for the review and risk analysis of all the contracts on
regular basis?
A. The IT Service Continuity Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Supplier Manager
D. The Service Catalogue Manager
Answer: C

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NO.20 You work as a Database Administrator for Bluewell Inc. The company has a SQL Server 2005
computer. The company asks you to implement a RAID system to provide fault tolerance to a database.
You want to implement disk mirroring. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the
task?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-0
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-10
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and
the role of a data custodian?
A. The custodian makes the initial information classification assignments and the operations manager
implements the scheme.
B. The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
operations manager.
C. The data custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
data owner.
D. The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
custodian.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.22 Which of the following levels of RAID provides security features that are availability, enhanced
performance, and fault tolerance?
A. RAID-10
B. RAID-5
C. RAID-0
D. RAID-1
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76

NO.23 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTA
B. RPO
C. RCO
D. RTO
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 demo   312-76   312-76

NO.24 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency management team
B. Damage assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL test questions   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.25 Which of the following tools in Helix Windows Live is used to reveal the database password of password
protected MDB files created using Microsoft Access or with Jet Database Engine?
A. Asterisk logger
B. FAU
C. Access Pass View
D. Galleta
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL pdf   312-76   312-76

NO.26 You work as an Incident handling manager for Orangesect Inc. You detect a virus attack incident in the
network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus.
Which of the following phases in the Incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this
incident?
A. Eradication
B. Identification
C. Containment
D. Recovery
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL exam   312-76   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.27 Della works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. She is training some of the newly recruited
personnel in the field of security management. She is giving a tutorial on DRP. She explains that the major
goal of a disaster recovery plan is to provide an organized way to make decisions if a disruptive event
occurs and asks for the other objectives of the DRP. If you are among some of the newly recruited
personnel in SoftTech Inc, what will be your answer for her question?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Guarantee the reliability of standby systems through testing and simulation.
B. Protect an organization from major computer services failure.
C. Minimize the risk to the organization from delays in providing services.
D. Maximize the decision-making required by personnel during a disaster.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.28 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Resource Management Plan
C. Risk Management Plan
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL test questions   312-76   312-76

NO.29 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify
the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Estimate activity duration
C. Risk identification
D. Qualitative analysis
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.
B. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.
C. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.
D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: DC0-200
Exam Name: Dell (Certified Server Professional Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD

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NO.7 You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet.
From what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team F. enter the path and filename of the
configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE

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NO.12 You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose
two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and
view installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC

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NO.13 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D

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NO.15 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
Answer: ACE

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NO.18 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD

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NO.20 You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HT0-201
Exam Name: CompTIA (CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam)
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Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.2 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.4 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.6 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.9 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.16 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.17 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.18 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

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NO.21 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

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NO.22 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.23 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.24 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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NO.25 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.29 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

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