2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: 199-01
Exam Name: Riverstone (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 276 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What types of IPSec encryption ciphers are supported by default on the Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A.DES
B.3DES
C.AES
D.NULL
E.RC2
Answer:ADB

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NO.2 A QoS policy defines three classes of service including the class "default".The class "default" should
have a DSCP marking of default value and act as a "catchall" for traffic.Which of the following QoS DSCP
rules is correct?
A.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src 10.0.0.4 dest 10.0.0.1 dscp 12 rulenum 3
B.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src 10.0.0.4 dest 10.0.0.1 dscp 0 rulenum 1
C.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp default rulenum 3
D.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp 0 rulenum 1
E.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp 0 rulenum 3
Answer:E

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NO.3 Of the following, which class priority is defined for the "default" QoS class?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which of the following may cause Asymmetric Route Detection?
A.Receiving an RST packet from the client with an invalid sequence number while the connection is in the
SYN_SENT state
B.Receiving a SYN/ACK packet from the server with an invalid ACK number while the connection is in the
SYN_SENT state
C.Receiving an ACK packet from the client while the connection is in the SYN_SENT state
D.Receiving SYN retransmits from the client
E.All of the above
Answer:E

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NO.5 Assuming the default settings for Connection Forwarding, how long does it take for a Steelhead
appliance to declare a neighbor is down?
A.10 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.20 seconds
D.25 seconds
E.30 seconds
Answer:E

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NO.6 What value (in hexadecimal) is added to the TCP option field by the client-side Steelhead appliance
during auto-discovery?
A.0x76
B.0xFC
C.0x4C
D.0xEC
Answer:C

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NO.7 Asymmetric Route Detection configured on the client-side Steelhead appliance examines which of the
following TCP flags to determine if route asymmetry has occurred?
A.RST
B.FIN
C.PSH
D.URG
Answer:A

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NO.8 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
(Select 3)
A.When inactive flows have remained for 15 seconds
B.When inactive flows have remained for 30 minutes
C.When active flows have remained for 30 minutes
D.When the TCP URG bit is set
E.When the TCP FIN bit is set
Answer:ACE

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NO.9 Which of the following QoS mechanisms are supported in the Steelhead appliance? (Select 4)
A.NBAR
B.Traffic Shaping
C.Prioritization
D.Classification
E.Marking
Answer:BCDE

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NO.10 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
A.When the TCP FIN bit is set
B.When the TCP PSH bit is set
C.When the TCP RST bit is set
D.A and C
E.A and B
F.None of the above
Answer:D

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NO.11 What are the key benefits of Scalable Data Referencing (SDR)? (Select 2)
A.Reduces data sent across the WAN
B.Reduces data sent across the LAN
C.Speed up data transfers across the WAN
D.Speed up data transfers across the LAN
E.Speed up all UDP connections across the WAN
Answer:AC

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NO.12 Upon implementing a NetFlow based reporting solution, your auditing department asks you why it takes
30 minutes for active data flows to report back to the NetFlow collector, and if you can change it to 15
minutes. Which of the following CLI commands can be used to change the export timer for active flows to
15 minutes? (Hint: Use the calculator)
A.ip flow-setting active_to 900
B.ip flow-setting active_to 15
C.ip netflow active_to 30
D.ip netflow active_to 900
E.The export time of 30 minutes cannot be changed
Answer:A

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NO.13 Data for inactive flows will get exported to a NetFlow collector after 15 seconds of flow inactivity. In order
to reduce the amount of traffic sent across the WAN, you would like to increase this value to 1 minute.
Which of the following CLI commands can be used to change the export timer for inactive flows to 1
minute? (Hint: Use the calculator)
A.ip netflow inactive_to 60
B.ip flow-setting inactive_to 60
C.ip netflow inactive_to 1
D.ip flow-setting inactive_to 1
E.The export time of 15 seconds cannot be changed
Answer:B

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NO.14 What does CIFS transparent prepopulation require in order to be configured? (Select 3)
A.Join Windows Domain
B.Remote Shared Path
C.Credentials
D.Schedule
E.Data Center Steelhead IP
Answer:BCD

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NO.15 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node.Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical5
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands correctly define the mission-critical class as well as classify optimized
traffic from the 192.12.12.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority realtime min-pct 10
B.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority interactive min-pct 10
C.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add rulenum 2 class-name mission-critical traffic-type passthrough source subnet
192.12.12.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080
E.qos classification rule add rulenum 2 class-name mission-critical traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.12.12.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080
Answer:CE

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NO.16 Which of the following are a complete list of in-path rule types available for configuration on a
Steelhead appliance?
A.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target
B.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, discard
C.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, discard, deny
D.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, forced peer, discard, deny
Answer:C

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NO.17 What are the available interfaces to use for NetFlow export on a Steelhead appliance with a 4-port
card? (Select 2)
A.WAN0_0
B.WAN1_0
C.Primary
D.LAN0_0
E.AUX
Answer:CE

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NO.18 Which of the following would most likely represent the best class for classifying VoIP traffic?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:A

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NO.19 What version of NetFlow does Riverbed RiOS support?
A.NetFlow v1
B.NetFlow v5
C.NetFlow v7
D.NetFlow v8
E.NetFlow v9
Answer:B

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NO.20 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node. Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands best defines the transactional class as well as classify all traffic from
the 192.16.16.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority business min-pct 20
B.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority low min-pct 20
C.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.16.16.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port all rulenum 1
E.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type all source subnet 192.16.16.0/24 port all
destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 rulenum 3
Answer:AE

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NO.1 What happens with the old RES Workspace Manager Environment Password when an
administrator sets a new one?
A. The old password will be honored during a grace period of 30 days.
B. The old password will be stored in the passwords, old file.
C. The old password will be destroyed immediately.
D. The old password can be restored with the license node.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An international Terminal Server farm centrally based in New York has users with different
languages working on it. The best way to create a language-dynamic Start Menu is to base it on
1. Zones.

NO.3 What is a Workspace Extension?
A. A workstation-installed application that is integrated in a laptop environment.
B. A Terminal Server-installed application that is published through RES VDX.
C. A workstation-installed application that is integrated in a Terminal Server environment.
D. A Terminal Server-installed application that is published through the RES Workspace Extender.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Language Packs.

NO.5 Keyboard mappings.

NO.6 User Workspace Management consists of
A. Context, Composition and Content
B. Context, Content and Security
C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup
D. Composition, Security, Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following notations can be used when creating a Drive Mapping in RES
Workspace
Manager?
1. Http://to a WebDAV folder
2. Https:// to a WebDAV folder
3. Local path to a folder
4. UNC path to a shared folder
A. 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 Environment Variables.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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2. To view all registry settings applied to a specific user, an administrator needs to consult the
A. Usage Tracking Viewer.
B. User Session properties.
C. Workspace Analysis Details.
D. User Registry settings filtered by the user.
Answer: C

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3. What components are needed for Desktop Transformation?
1. Desktop Sampler
2. Workspace Model
3. Workspace Preferences
4. Workspace Designer
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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4. By applying an Exclusive Filter in the RES Workspace Manager Console, which objects are
displayed?
A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria.
B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly.
C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only.
D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating
they can be modified.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which folders are automatically excluded from Read-Only Blanketing?
1. tmp and temp folders
2. User profile and all user profile
3. Recycle bin on all local drives
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D

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NO.10 The option “Allow users to restore their own settings” is selected for an application, but a
user of
the application complains that the “Restore” option has not become available. What is the most
likely cause?
A. The option “number of sessions to keep” has not been set.
B. The user has no stored settings to restore.
C. The application is running in Sampling mode.
D. The user has selected the option “Do not show this message again”.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which describe the role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo cancellation? (Select 2
answers.)
A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic paths presented to a microphone.
B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background noise to the room, changing the room
acoustic paths.
C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound, causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker
to microphone.
D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for
acoustic echo cancellers.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which correctly describes reverberation and echo? (Select 2 answers.)
A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.
B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C. Reverberation is long, distinct acoustic reflections.
D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse carry-on of sound.
E. Echo is short, diffuse acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do? (Select 2 answers.)
A. It turns up the volume to the far-end.
B. It selects among multiple microphones.
C. It turns down the volume to the far-end.
D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
Answer: AC

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NO.4 What allows you to detect audio distortion? (Select 2 answers.)
A. audible sound quality
B. measured audio signal level
C. measured background noise level
D. digital signal processor clock level
Answer: AB

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NO.5 What correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.
B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and
returned to the far-end.
C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that
room being picked up by the microphones.
D. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking
up the audio from the room loudspeakers.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which describes frequency response?
A. The ability to determine frequency content of a signal.
B. The ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes.
C. The ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits.
D. The ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which device connects to mic-level input?
A. an amplifier
B. a microphone
C. an audio mixer
D. a sound pressure meter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AEC)? (Select 2 answers.)
A. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in a given room.
B. Training is independent of room audio components and gain settings.
C. Training is the process by which an AEC adapts to the room acoustic system.
D. Training can be accomplished through an explicit process such as white noise or pink noise.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 How many bits make up frames in T1 framing?
A. 180
B. 193
C. 248
D. 251
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which describe sub-band and wideband Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AECs)? (Select 3 answers.)
A. Wideband AECs treat the audio as one continuous segment.
B. Sub-band AECs treat the audio as a single 3.1 kHz segment.
C. Wideband AECs require additional processing to reduce echo artifacts.
D. Sub-band AECs divide the audio into small segments and process each segment independently.
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 How is noise measured? (Select 2 answers.)
A. by volume
B. by distance
C. by amplitude
D. by impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.12 What correctly describes the term "half duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?
A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any given time.
B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking from any given room.
C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to speak at any given time.
D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak in a given room attending a conference.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-035
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle9i dba new features for Oracle7.3 and Oracle9 ocps)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 168 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which type of index should be created to spread the distribution of index updates across the
index tree?
A.B-tree indexes
B.bitmap indexes
C.reverse-key indexes
D.function-based indexes
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which CREATE TABLE parameter should you be concerned with if the length of rows in an
index-organized table vary over a wide range of values?
A.PCTFREE
B.PCTUSED
C.PCTINCREASE
D.PCTTHRESHOLD
Correct:D

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NO.3 What is true about version-enabled tables?
A.The unit of versioning is the schema.
B.It is possible to version enable a table pertaining to SYS.
C.There are as many segments as versions for the same base table.
D.It is possible to create workspaces if there is no version-enabled table in the database.
Correct:D

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NO.4 Which two statements about dimensions are true? (Choose two.)
A.A hierarchy can consist of multiple levels.
B.A dimension can be based on multiple tables.
C.A dimension can contain only a single hierarchy.
D.No special privileges are required to create a dimension.
Correct:A B

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NO.5 Which three features are provided by Recovery Manager and NOT provided by user-managed
backup and recovery? (Choose three.)
A.online backups
B.skipping unused blocks
C.partial database backups
D.incremental block-level backup
E.detection of corrupted blocks during backup
Correct:B D E

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NO.6 What statement is true about taking a database default temporary tablespace offline?
A.You cannot take a default temporary tablespace offline.
B.The database must be quiesced before you perform this action.
C.You must ensure that all users are assigned to an alternative temporary tablespace first.
D.You must first ensure that the default temporary tablespace has the permanent tablespace
characteristic.
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which type of ROWID does Oracle use for global indexes on partitioned tables?
A.local
B.extended
C.restricted
Correct:B

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NO.8 Examine the statement: DROP TABLESPACE IND2 INCLUDING CONTENTS AND DATAFILES;
What is the result of the statement?
A.The contents and data files belonging to the IND2 tablespace are dropped.
B.The statement will only succeed if the IND2 tablespace was built using Oracle-Managed Files (OMF)
data files.
C.The statement will only succeed if the data files belonging to the IND2 tablespace are Oracle-Managed
Files (OMF) or if the database was created using OMF.
D.The contents of the tablespace are dropped along with all its data files except those identified with the
Oracle-Managed Files (OMF) naming convention.
Correct:A

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NO.9 In the Oracle9i Data Guard architecture, what is the purpose of the Log Transport Services?
A.to transfer redo log information to one or more destinations
B.to apply redo log records sent from the primary database to a standby database at the receiving
location
C.to synchronize changes to the control files on all standby databases with changes on the primary
database when a log switch occurs
D.to batch archived log files on the primary database until a defined number of checkpoints have been
processed and then to distribute the archives to each standby database
Correct:A

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NO.10 What do you need to do in order for the Database Resource Manager to estimate, in advance,
the execution time of a statement?
A.Set the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter.
B.Gather optimizer statistics on related objects.
C.Set the TIMED_OS_STATISTICS initialization parameter.
D.Nothing
Correct:B

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NO.11 Users complain that SQL statements using a particular index fail. Using DBVERIFY, you find
that two separate blocks in the index have become corrupt. The database data files for user data
and index are very large. What is the least disruptive recovery strategy available in Oracle9i?
A.Rebuild the index using the online option.
B.Take the individual data file offline (not the whole tablespace), restore and recover the data file from
backup with RMAN, then set the data file online again.
C.Without setting the individual data file offline, use RMAN with Block Media Recovery to restore and
recover only those blocks.
D.Take the individual data file (not the whole tablespace) offline, use RMAN with Block Media Recovery to
restore and recover only those blocks, then set the data file online again.
Correct:C

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NO.12 Which two are true regarding external tables? (Choose two.)
A.External tables can be updated.
B.External tables are read-only tables.
C.Indexes can be created on external tables.
D.Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
Correct:B D

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NO.13 What is one benefit of using the ALTER TABLE ... MOVE command rather than a CREATE
TABLE ... AS SELECT command?
A.row chaining is eliminated.
B.index definitions are retained.
C.duplicate space is not required while the command executes.
D.all operations, such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, and SELECT can be performed while the
operation completes.
Correct:B

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NO.14 Which four are true regarding the Workspace Manager in Oracle9i? (Choose four.)
A.automatically versions all tables
B.automatically installed with Oracle9i
C.merges changes with parent rows or discards changes
D.provides mechanism to identify and resolve conflicts
E.allows for version enabling tables by use of a packaged procedure
Correct:B C D E

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NO.15 Consider the following scenario using incremental backups. A level 1 backup is taken on the
first of the month. A level 2 backup is taken every Sunday, and a level 3 backup is taken daily. If
the database gets corrupted on the second Wednesday of the month and is lost, which scenario
would restore the database completely?
A.the weekly backup (level 2) and the daily backup (level 3)
B.the monthly backup (level 1) and the daily backup (level 3)
C.a base level backup (level 0) is missing and nothing can be recovered
D.the monthly backup (level 1), the weekly backup (level 2) and the daily backup (level 3)
Correct:C

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NO.16 In order to speed foreign key creation, Oracle9i will cache the first _____ primary key values
only where there are multirow DML statements.
A.32
B.128
C.256
D.512
Correct:C

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NO.17 Online index rebuild functionality has been extended to include which four index structures?
(Choose four.)
A.bitmap indexes
B.reverse key indexes
C.function-based indexes
D.key-compressed indexes on regular tables
E.key-compressed indexes on IOT (including secondary indexes)
Correct:B C D E

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NO.18 What criterion does Oracle9i use to determine whether a database file is an Oracle Managed File?
A.the filename format
B.information stored inside a data dictionary table
C.information stored in the ALERT.LOG file for the corresponding instance
D.information stored inside the corresponding initialization parameter file for the instance
Correct:A

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NO.19 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.Composite partitioning enables you to prevent partition elimination.
B.Composite partitioning supports hash partitioned global indexes.
C.Composite partitioning is ideal for both historical data and data placement.
D.Composite partitioning provides high performance and manageability, like range partitioning.
Correct:C D

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NO.20 Consider the following statement: SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SCHEMA_STATS (- 2>
ownname => 'OE', - 3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, - 4> method_opt
=> 'for all columns size AUTO'); What is the effect of 'for all columns size AUTO' of the
METHOD_OPT option?
A.The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all table, column,
and index statistics for the OE schema.
B.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the application
uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the
column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data distribution, for
all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 1Z1-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 183 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: AE

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NO.7 During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting
affect the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is
set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C

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NO.17 You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the
oranfstab file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD

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NO.18 In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database.
As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-264
Exam Name: Oracle (Hyperion Essbase Analytics 9.3 Developer)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 During a CALC ALL or CALC DIM process, Analytic Services calculates sparse and dense
dimensions in a specific sequence. What makes the default calculation sequence so efficient?
A.Analytic Services calculates interior block calculations in existing blocks before creating more data
blocks
B.Analytic Services creates all possible data blocks before calculating accounts data
C.Analytic Services creates data blocks in top-down order
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which of the following characterizes the top member in an alternate hierarchy?
A.Generation 1 member
B.Marked label only
C.Marked excluded from consolidation (~)
Correct:C

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NO.3 View the Exhibit. The outline shown in the exhibit is an example of:
A.Fiscal year crossover time design
B.Generic time design
C.Scenario-based time design
Correct:B

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NO.4 View the Exhibit. What terminology best describes the member Act Vs Bud in the Scenario
dimension shown here?
A.Sibling of Act Vs Fcst, descendant of Scenario, leaf node, generation 3 member
B.Descendant of Scenario Variances, root member, sibling of Act Vs Fcst, generation 3 member
C.Level 0 member, child of Scenario Variances, generation 4 member, sibling of Bud Vs Fcst
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which options are available to manipulate fields in Data Prep Editor?
A.Create using text, Delete, and Move
B.Create using join, Split, and Copy
C.Join, Move, and Split
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-610
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel CRM OnDemand 2006 administrator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment providing the necessary
security to protect their data. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that Siebel
CRM OnDemand is designed for High Security? Choose three.
A.Reliable high-bandwidth Internet access
B.Single-layer LAN architecture to isolate data
C.128-bit encryption through secure socket layer (SSL)
D.System of Wireless networks providing WiFi access points
E.Anti-virus protection at the server-level
Answer: ACE

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NO.2 Which of the following settings are available to the Administrator for setting sign-in and password
controls? Choose three.
A.Maximum number of sign-in attempts allowed
B.New password must be different from old password checkbox
C.Alpha-numeric password required checkbox
D.Minimum password length requirement
E.Maximum password length requirement
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 By default, how are sales quotas tracked in CRM OnDemand?
A.Quotas are tracked on the Sales Quota Dashboard
B.Quotas are tracked on the My Sales Quota Report
C.Quotas are tracked through automatically generated forecasts
D.Quotas are tracked on the Opportunities screen
Answer: C

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NO.4 Bill Williams is a manager of a sales team. His role gives him Read/Create default access to accounts.
Jane Jones is a sales representative who reports to Bill Williams. Her role gives her Create-Only default
access to accounts, and Read/Edit/Delete owner access. Jane owns the ACE Industries account record
in Siebel CRM OnDemand.
Jane changes the owner on the ACE Industries account to Frank Ford, a sales representative who does
not report to Bill Williams, but to a sales manager on another team. What kind of access does Jane now
have to the ACE Industries record?
A.No Access
B.Read/Create
C.Read/Edit/Delete
D.Read-Only
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has decided to change the password requirements and force new policies into effect
immediately. As the Administrator, what must you do?
A.Click the Reset All Passwords button on the company Profile, and then modify the password controls.
B.Modify the password controls and distribute new default passwords to all users.
C.Modify the password controls only. Changes take effect with each users next login.
D.Modify the password controls and then click the Reset All Passwords button on the Company Profile.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The first task in administering a company is verifying and updating the information contained in the
company profile. Where does the company information contained in the company profile initially come
from?
A.Information gathered from the .ini files installed on the users computer
B.Information provided during the initial sign-up for Siebel CRM OnDemand
C.Information provided by the account executive from Siebel
D.There is no information in the company profile before the Administrator updates the profile
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment going down, negatively
affecting his business. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that Siebel CRM
OnDemand is designed for High Availability? Choose three.
A.Clustered servers
B.Redundancy within the hardware and network components
C.Load Balancing
D.Database de-normalization
E.JavaScript usage
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 What happens if you do not map every field in your source file during an import?
A.You receive a warning message, but can choose to continue without mapping the non-required fields
B.The Next button on the mapping step does not become active until all fields are mapped
C.You do not receive an alert, but no records will get imported into CRM OnDemand
D.You receive an alert, and cannot continue until all required and non-required fields are mapped
Answer: A

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NO.9 Siebel CRM OnDemand calculates expected revenue based on the probability associated with the
sales stage and the opportunity revenue. Using the sales stage probabilities below, what is the expected
revenue of a $100,000 opportunity in the Qualified Lead stage?
Qualified Lead = 30%Building Vision = 50%Short List = 70%Negotiation = 90%Closed/Won = 100%
A.$3,000
B.$70,000
C.$30,000
D.$100,000
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment performing slowly,
negatively affecting her business. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that
Siebel CRM OnDemand is designed for High Performance? Choose three.
A.Load Balancing
B.Extensive JavaScript usage
C.Redundancy within the hardware and network components
D.Database caching
E.Extensive indexing
Answer: ADE

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Exam Code: 1Z0-055
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems
pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. ADR diagnostic files
B. all the optimizer statistics
C. initialization parameter settings
D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages
E. the table and index definitions and actual data
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 View the Exhibit for the object interdependency diagram.
The PRODUCTS table is used to create the PRODCAT_VW view.
PRODCAT_VW is used in the GET_DATA procedure.
GET_DATA is called in the CHECK_DATA function.
A new column PROD_QTY is added to the PRODUCTS table.
How does this impact the status of the dependent objects?
A. All dependent objects remain valid.
B. Only the procedure and function become invalid and must be recompiled.
C. Only the view becomes invalid and gets automatically revalidated the next time it is used.
D. Only the procedure and function become invalid and get automatically revalidated the next time they
are called.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported
SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE
parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression
for a few SQL statements. What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management
Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being
loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Identify the activities performed as part of the Automatic SQL Tuning process in the maintenance
window? (Choose all that apply.)
A. generating the SQL profile
B. testing and accepting the SQL profile
C. generating a list of candidate SQLs for tuning
D. adding tuned SQL plans into the SQL plan baseline
E. tuning each SQL statement in the order of importance
F. generating baselines that include candidate SQL statement for tuning
Answer: ABCE

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NO.6 You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or
command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting
the changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and
use them for recovery
Answer: D

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NO.8 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.
You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed
before the REPAIR FAILURE command.
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the
Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Answer: C

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NO.10 You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option. The
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to 'ora_%t_%s_%r.log'. Which statement regarding the
archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?
A. The archived redo log files will be overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.
C. The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.
D. The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.
Answer: D

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NO.11 While performing the backup of the flash recovery area, you notice that one of the archived redo log
files is missing. You have multiple destinations for archived redo log files. What implications does it have
on the backup of the flash recovery area?
A. The backup succeeds but it would be without the missing archived log.
B. The backup fails because one of the archived redo log files is missing.
C. The backup succeeds because it fails over to one of the alternative archived redo log destinations.
D. During backup, you are prompted for the alternative destination for the missing archived redo log file.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the
initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)
FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_category;
Where would the result of this query be stored?
A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache
Answer: C

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NO.13 An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace
threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the
TEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?
A. TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.
B. TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C. TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.
D. TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 View the Exhibit exhibit1.
In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is "CA", the value of
COUNTRY_ID is "US"
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.
The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What
can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
SET LONG 10000
DECLARE report clob;
BEGIN
report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);
END;
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You issued the following command:
CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area
(startdate DATE,
enddate DATE,
class CHAR(20))
ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS
TABLESPACE tbs_t1;
An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.
Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)
A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.
B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.
C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Answer: A

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NO.20 View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.
B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle
Support.
Answer: D

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