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Exam Code: P2090-080
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Exam Code: C4120-783
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NO.1 What option of the InfoSphere Warehouse Administration Console'sSQL Warehousing menu is
used to immediately execute a deployed application?
A. Manage Control Flows ? Select a Control Flow ? Click Start Icon
B. Manage Applications ? Select an Application ? Click Start icon
C. Manage Instances ? Select an Instance ? Click Start Icon
D. Manage Applications ? Select an Instance ? Click Start icon
Answer: A

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NO.2 When preserving a mining model rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?When preserving amining model? rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?
A. An annotator
B. A visualizer
C. An introspector
D. There is no function to do this.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following data flow palette operators DOES NOT have the capability of creating a
persistent DB2 table?
A. File Export
B. Table Target
C. Data Station
D. Bulk Load Target
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is NOT a target audience for an InfoSphere Warehouse opportunity?
A. New SAP implementation
B. Existing DB2 9 customers
C. Small and mid-sized businesses looking for their first Data Warehouse
D. Companies looking for a complete reporting solution that helps to create, manage, and deliver
reports
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about IBM Smart Analytics System modules is FALSE?
A. An IBM Smart Analytics System is limited to a maximumof 12 modules, so users must carefully
choose which modules to include.
B. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to support system scalability and can be added
to the Smart Analytics System as needed to meet specific customer requirements.
C. IBMSmart Analytics System modules are designed to integrate with other modules in the system
to provide optimized performance to business analytics solutions.
D. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to have different roles, such as modules for
BI,modules for warehouse data, modules for high availability failover, etc.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the difference between the IBM Smart Analytics System 5600 and the 5600S?
A. The 5600S has two extra SAN Storage Switches
B. The 5600S is the only one that comes with a System x Server
C. The 5600S uses SSD Storage Devices
D. The 5600S comes with Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Workload Management component of InfoSphere Warehouse 9.7 provides
_________________.
A. control of individual database activities
B. control of concurrency of database activities
C. fine grained, light weight monitoring of database activities
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 A cube has been designed in Design Studio. What step(s) is(are) required to make it available
to an existing cube server?
A. Deploy metadata to the database
B. Add the cube to thecube server
C. Start the cube server and cube
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2120-800
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Exam Code: A2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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NO.1 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Information Analyzer v9.1
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Exam Code: C2010-505
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5.1 IT Asset Management Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-515
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Application Performance Management V7.7 Fundamentals
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NO.1 If there is a need to run data rules on a daily basis, which two options are valid?
A. Create a bundle and run lAJob command
B. Schedule lAJob runs using DataStage Director
C. Run lAJob command pointing to data rule executable
D. Run lABundle command pointing to all rules to be executed
E. Submit lAJob command on a daily basis from Information Server Operation console
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You have been tasked with documenting all fields that contain personal information while
performing profiling activities.
Which method would you use to accomplish this?
A. Select the 'Personal' status on the Domain & Completeness workspace.
B. Update the 'Priority' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
C. Update the 'Personal' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
D. Select the data class or sub-class indicating the type of information for each field containing
personal information.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two characteristics of data rules?
A. Each data rule has a defined status.
B. Data rules only produce exception data.
C. Data rule definitions are explicit to one data source.
D. You cannot transfer data rules to another environment.
E. Data rules can be tested interactively during data rule creation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 You are configuring security for a user who will be testing Information Analyzer rules on an ad
hoc basis.
What steps are necessary to ensure the user can test the rules?
A. Enable the Suite User and Information Analyzer Rules Author roles in the Information Server web
console on the Administration tab.
B. Enable the Rules User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace.
C. Enable the Rule User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Rules Operator role in the Information Analyzer console in the Home Analysis Settings workspace
.
D. Enable the Suite User and Rules Administrator role in the Information Analyzer web console on the
Administration tab. Add the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project
Properties workspace.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are working with a System Administrator who must move an Information Analyzer project
to a new Information Server environment using the command line tools. You need to ensure that the
project is established with the same metadata and reports as in the original environment.
Which parameter must be included to successfully complete the export?
A. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeCommonReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
B. -includeAssignedAssets; -includeProjectReports; -includeAIIDataSources
C. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
D. -includeProjectMetadata; -includelAReports; -includeDependentClasses
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two steps are necessary to set up data rule monitoring?
A. Create Metric.
B. Create Data Rule Definition.
C. Create Data Source connection.
D. Create batch script to run data rule.
E. Create and configure dashboard environment to see run results.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which can be done in the Data Rule Stage?
A. Create a metric
B. Unpublish a rule
C. Delete a published rule
D. Create an unpublished rule
Answer: C

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NO.8 A new business group, working in a separate and distinct Information Analyzer environment, is
starting to assess their data quality, but wishes to reuse existing data quality validation to jumpstart
their effort.
Which method supports delivering the data rule definitions to this new environment?
A. Open InfoSphere Metadata Asset Manager; go to Home>Metadata Management>Data Quality,
select the desired Data Rule Definitions, click the Export task, and then provide the output file name.
Repeat the process in the new environment but click the Import option and select the output file
name.
B. Open InfoSphere Metadata Workbench; go to the Find tab; open drop down list and select Data
Rule Definition; check the desired Data Rule Definitions; click Save icon and select Save as Data
Format(XML) - Import. Open Metadata Workbench in the new environment but click the Advanced
tab; select Import Metadata option and select the output file name.
C. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -getRuleDefinition including the -
project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, and the -xml
output type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new
environment create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
D. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -exportRuleDefinitions including the
-project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, the -xml output
type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new environment
create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2090-619
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NO.1 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

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NO.2 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Gathering Interval drop-down menu setting in the Advanced
Masthead parameters within the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) Administration Tool?
A. This option determines how often new content is replicated to relays.
B. This option determines how often the server gathers new content for the sites.
C. This option defines how often server replication occurs between two TEM servers.
D. This option determines how long the clients wait without hearing from the server before they
check whether new content is available.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company has a Trend Anti-Virus environment and they have purchased IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) for Core Protection. What needs to occur first to begin the process of gathering the
site content?
A. Activate all 23 analysis found under the Core Protection Module in the TEM Console.
B. Go to the license overview dashboard under BigFix Management domain and enable Trend Micro
Core Protection Module, Trend Reporting.
C. Core protection requires its own server. Review hardware requirements, build the server, and
setup ODBC connections back to the TEM server.
D. Once the Core Protection Module has been purchased, an e-mail is sent from Trend containing
the necessary download links and information. Follow the e-mail instruction to download and install
Trend on the TEM server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Power Management has recently been added to the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)
license. What is the first step to view the site contents in the console?
A. Launch the TEM Administration Tool and enable the site under the Masthead Management tab
B. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and specifically subscribe the
TEM server
C. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and subscribe any Windows
computer
D. Enable the Power Management site under the License Overview dashboard within the BigFix
Management domain
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement describes how to manually set download throttling for clients within IBM
Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)?
A. Access the relay diagnostic page on the TEM server at http://127.0.0.1:52311 /rd and modify the
Client Download Speed setting.
B. Access the TEM console, take action on the task BES Client Setting: Download Throttling, in the
Action Parameter window set the Bytes/sec value, and click OK.
C. Access the TEM console, select File > Preferences, under the bandwidth throttling section, update
the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
D. Access the TEM Administration Tool, select System Options, select bandwidth throttling, and
update the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
Answer: B

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NO.5 This action script is run:
regset "[HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Test]" "testString" = "testValue"
In the fixlet debugger, the key gets correctly created under the HKEY_CURRENTJJSER branch.
However, when running the same action by targeting the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client
in the TEM Console, the agent states that the action ran to completion but the same key is not there.
What is the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The TEM client reported action completion in error.
B. Some action script commands, like regset, work only in the fixlet debugger.
C. The fixlet debugger is more forgiving when it comes to proper action script form.
D. The fixlet debugger runs under the users' context; the TEM client runs as LocalSystem.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) for Security and Compliance Analytics (SCA)
installed?
A. From the TEM component installer
B. Take action on the task Deploy and Run Security Checklist
C. Take action on the task Download TEMA Installer, then run the setup file manually
D. Enable the site in the License Overview Dashboard in the TEM Management Domain
Answer: C

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NO.7 The IT operations team wants to install IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) in a network
where proxy Internet access is required. The proxy requires a non-Windows credential to be entered
each time the Internet is accessed. Where is this registry key set:
[HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\BigFix\Enterprise ServertGatherService]?
A. On the TEM server
B. On the Top Level Relay
C. On the Internet DMZ relay
D. On a client with direct Internet access
Answer: A

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9. The Message Level Encryption feature of IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2 (TEM) increases
security but adds an additional load to the environment. What system hardware changes should be
made to the TEM environment to accommodate the additional load?
A. Add more RAM to the relays and clients
B. Add more disk space to the TEM server and clients
C. Add more RAM to the TEM server or decrypting relay
D. Add more processing power to the TEM server or decrypting relay
Answer: D

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10. Which dashboard can be viewed to check the average number of BES Clients per relay?
A. Systems Lifecycle
B. Deployment Overview
C. System Configuration
D. Deployment Health Checks
Answer: B

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11. Which statement accurately describes one of the requirements for running the Client
Deployment Tool for Windows?
A. The target should have port 52311 open.
B. The target must be in an Active Directory domain.
C. The target must have file and print sharing services enabled.
D. The deployment system should be any UNIX or Windows relay.
Answer: C

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12. Internet access must be configured through a proxy server in order for the IBM Tivoli
Endpoint Manager (TEM) server to download Windows patches from the Internet. How is this
accomplished?
A. The TEM server does not need Internet access. Content can only be added manually.
B. Configure the BES Gather Service to use a service account that has open access to the Internet.
C. Configure specific proxy server rules only permitting the TEM clients to go to specific domains
such as Microsoft.com or Adobe.com.
D. In the Window's registry set the BES Gather Service to bypass proxy server for local address.
Restart the BES Gather Service when finished so changes will take effect.
Answer: B

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13. How is an IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client system most efficiently promoted to a
relay?
A. Manually run the reiayinstaill.exe package on the desired system
B. All TEM clients are already relays so no additional configuration is necessary
C. Use the relay install task from the TEM Console to install the relay on the desired system
D. Create a fixlet using the TEM Software Distribution tool to distribute and execute the relay install
on the desired system
Answer: C

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14. Which account should a remote console operator use to access the IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) Console?
A. LDAP/AD Domain credentials
B. TEM Masthead and password
C. SQL Server Admin credentials
D. TEM Private Key and password
Answer: A

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15. If usePre70ClientCompatibleMIME is set to false for the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager server,
what is the recommended number of components in a baseline?
A. <15
B. <250
C. <1000
D. <2000
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has a functioning IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) server and has successfully
deployed TEM for Core Protection Module (CPM) in their network. They want to use Trend's Web
Reputation technology so that they can have real time and control to prevent Web-based malware
from infecting their end users' computers. What do they need to do to get this process started?
A. CPM does not have Web Reputation capability.
B. Take action on the task Set URL Filtering on the end users' computers.
C. Ensure CPM clients are at V10.6 or greater. Take action on the Core Protection Module
-
Endpoint Upgrade task.
D.Take action on the task Enable Web Reputation on the Proxy Server to enable communication
between CPM and the proxy.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Except for defining or deleting storage pools, which privilege class is granted to an
administrator who will manage IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 databases, storage devices, and
server storage?
A.Server privilege
B.Policy privilege
C.Storage privilege
D.System privilege
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about policy sets? (Choose two.)
A.A policy set must be activated before use.
B.Only one policy set is allowed in one policy domain.
C.A policy set can only contain one management class.
D.There are several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is default at a time.
E.There can be several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is active at a time.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which command is issued to set up one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server as the
source for configuration information for other servers?
A.set configmanager on
B.set server enterprise
C.define path configmanager
D.define server configmanager
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the function of Cognos Business Intelligence V8?
A.It allows the creation of custom IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) reports.
B.It is a prerequisite checker for IBM Tivoli Monitoring for TSM.
C.It automates the installation and configuration of IBM Tivoli Monitoring for TSM.
D.It allows the creation of maintenance scripts to perform daily TSM server maintenance tasks.
Answer: A

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NO.5 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which concept applies to client-side data deduplication?
A.The client creates a journal file to track redundant files.
B.The client compares the server and client activity log files to determine if the data will be
deduplicated.
C.The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server creates a log file named dedup.log to track redundant
files.
D.The client creates extents which are parts of files that are compared with other file extents to
identify
duplicates.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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NO.1 What should happen to service levels when demand information is shared with trading
partnersto reduce forecast uncertainties?
A. service levels should decrease
B. service levels should increase
C. service levels should be unaffected
D. service levels should initially increase, then decrease
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which flow within the supply chain typically motivates the other three?
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B. information
C. cash
D. reverse logistics
Answer: C

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chainexpense, 80% for other expenses, and hence, gross profit is 10%. Assume the revenues
remainconstant and the other expenses percentage remains constant at 80%.
A. 1 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 50 percent
E. 150 percent
Answer: B

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A. customer awareness
B. customer needs
C. customer technical expertise
D. customer value to the business
Answer: A

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B. seasonal products
C. innovative products
D. mature product
Answer: C

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NO.6 \All of the following are key just-in-time concepts EXCEPT:
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B. plant maintenance
C. vendor scheduling
D. orderly, safe workplace
E. move from work order to continuous flow
Answer: D

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A. far greater than
B. far less than
C. equal to
D. alternating between being less than and greater than
Answer: A

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B. the transportation container will "weigh out" before it "cubes out"
C. the transportation container has to be marked hazardous
D. the transportation will most likely be by air
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is a workspace?
A. It is your private area to manage your documents
B. It is a logical area for a team to collaborate on a business need
C. It is an area to store all your checked in files
D. It is your area for you to perform all your mail activities
Answer: B

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Which is the right option?
A. Minor Versions
B. Iterations
C. Major Version
D. Duplicate
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a Business Object?
A. An Instance of a Type
B. A schema Policy
C. A file in a Store
D. An Object created by the business modeler
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a Filter type?
A. Configuration
B. Properties
C. Attributes
D. Volume
Answer: B

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7. If you wanted a report on "How do summer and holiday vacations impact the number of Parts
that are released?" or "How did the reduction-in-force impact the number of ECRs that are
completed monthly?". What report would you run?
A. The Object Count In State Over Time Report
B. The Object Count Over Time Report
C. Object Count Report
D. Lifecycle Duration Report Over Time
Answer: A

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8. The Bar Search is case sensitive.
A. True
B. False
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9. The image displayed below is a User Interface element in 3DLive, which is called what?
A. the Standard toolbar
B. the Compass
C. the Lifecycle toolbar
D. the Bar
Answer: D

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10. Which of the following is NOT of the three value propositions of the 3DExperience Platform?
A. Reduce Time to Market
B. Reduce Total Cost of Ownership
C. Reduce Number of Engineering Changes
D. Increase Operational Efficiency
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Navigation window within CATIA V6 is used to do what?
A. Browse and filter the necessary 3D data
B. Make design changes to the 3D data
C. Create Engineering constraints between parts
D. Make positional updates on the 3D data
Answer: A

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NO.6 To view and use the annotation (drawing) tools of the Head-Up Display window, you must do
what?
A. Use the View > Toolbar command
B. Expand the Snapshot icon
C. Switch to the Navigation window
D. Switch to the Examine window
Answer: B

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NO.1 As we conceive and define a LSS project one of the overriding things we hope to accomplish is
to reduce the _____________________.
A. Work force
B. Number of process steps
C. Inventory
D. Cost of Poor Quality
Answer: D

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NO.2 A key metric in Six Sigma is the DPMO which stands for __________________?
A. Delayed production metrics output
B. Defects by management oversight
C. Defects per million opportunities
D. Developed production management oversight
Answer: C

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NO.3 One of the primary objectives of constructing an X-Y Diagram is to separate the vital few Y's
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Pareto Chart is a tool that displays data that typically follows what ratio?
A. 70:30
B. 80:20
C. 90:10
D. 95:5
Answer: B

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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 The Control Plan is created following the finalization of the Measure Phase and can be closed
when?
A. After the project costs have been recouped
B. When the Champion says so
C. Never, a Control Plan must stay in place
D. At the fiscal yearend of the business
Answer: C

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NO.7 At the beginning of a project we must keep in mind there are basically three views of a process:
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Lean Principles defines for us ________ specific areas where waste typically exists in our
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A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Nine
Answer: C

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NO.1 Consider the following complete configuration sample:
<bean class="rewards.internal.RewardNetworkImpl">
<property name="accountRepository" ref="accountRepository"/>
</bean>
<bean class="rewards.internal.account.JdbcAccountRepository"/>
Which of the following statements is true? (Select one)
A. This configuration is correct
B. This configuration is not valid because the first bean should have an id. Its value should be
"rewardNetwork".
C. This configuration is not valid because the second bean should have an id. Its value should be
"accountRepository".
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Consider the following code sample which creates an ApplicationContext from a file called
"application-config.xml" in the "rewards.internal" package, and a file called test-infra-config.xml in
the current folder:
ApplicationContext context = new
FileSystemXmlApplicationContext("classpath:rewards.internal.application-config.xml",
"file:testinfra-config.xml");
Which of those statements is true? (select one)
A. The use of the "file" prefix is not necessary
B. The use of the "classpath" prefix is not necessary
C. The use of the "." separator is correct
D. Both a and b
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following scenarios requires you to instantiate an ApplicationContext using the
'new' keyword? (Select one)
A. Running your Spring application inside a JUnit test (using SpringJUnit4ClassRunner)
B. Bootstrapping your Spring application within a Java main() method
C. Deploying your Spring application in an application server, packaged in a WAR file
D. Both a and b
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to Spring's ApplicationContext?
(select one)
A. The ApplicationContext eagerly instantiates all singleton beans by default
B. There are many different implementation classes which all implement the ApplicationContext
interface
C. When available, the close() method will cause any registered bean destruction code to be invoked
D. In a JUnit test using Spring support (with @ContextConfiguration annotation), it is necessary to
close the ApplicationContext manually
Answer: D

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NO.5 Select which statement(s) is/are true with respect to programming to interfaces with Spring
A. The use of interfaces allows for reduced coupling between collaborating objects
B. Spring requires all beans to implement interfaces
C. Spring requires that parameters in constructors and setters are defined using interface types
D. Spring requires all beans to have an empty constructor (either default or declared)
Answer: A

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NO.6 When injecting scalar/literal values into Spring beans, which of the following statements is
true? (select one)
A. Scalar values cannot be injected into setters or constructors with primitive type parameters
B. Spring performs automatic type conversion for certain data types, such as String to int
C. In XML Spring configuration, you can inject scalar values using the ref attribute of the <property
/> tag
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about the FactoryBean interface is NOT true? (select one)
A. A FactoryBean can be used to generate Spring beans of any type
B. The Spring configuration <property name="someValue" ref="myFactoryBeanImpl"/> will ALWAYS
inject the instance of the FactoryBean implementation
C. FactoryBean is a Spring interface
D. Factory objects used in Spring do not necessarily have to implement the FactoryBean interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 Consider the following class:
public class LegacySingleton {
private LegacySingleton(){}
public static LegacySingleton getAServiceInstance() {
return new LegacySingleton();
}
}
How can a bean of type LegacySingleton be created (using XML configuration)? (select one)
A. It is not possible, the constructor must be public
B. Use the factory-method attribute on the <bean> tag
C. Use the init-method attribute on the <bean> tag
D. Use autowiring
Answer: B

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NO.1 You are the meeting Host. What happens when you end a meeting?
A. All attendees, including the host are removed from the room
B. Only participants are removed from the room
C. Only the Presenter is removed from the room
D. Only the Host is removed from the room
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which activity CANNOT be completed by using the Breakout Room configurator?
A. Add additional breakout rooms
B. Assign attendees to any of the breakout rooms
C. Move breakout pods into the main meeting room
D. Begin and end breakout rooms
Answer: C

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NO.3 When can meeting rooms be used?
A. Any time after the meeting room is created
B. Onlyat the time you specified
C. Meeting rooms can only be used one time
D. Only on the date that you created the meeting room
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to use the Audio Setup Wizard to set up your microphone. Which two tasks can
you perform? (Choose two).
A. Test the connection to your telephone
B. Reduce background noise
C. Select audio waveforms
D. Test microphone
E. Grant users access to your microphone
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 Which statement about using the pause and annotate mode is true?
A. You are returned to the application that is being shared
B. Your audio and video is paused
C. A snapshot of the screen share is taken with a whiteboard overlay
D. The Share pod is minimized
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement about using the Outline pane is true?
A. The Outline pane does NOT display slide titles.
B. The Outline pane can be used to navigate the presentation.
C. The Outline pane displays notes for the selected slide.
D. The Outline pane does NOT display slide times.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference :http://help.adobe.com/en_US/Presenter/7.0/WS3a32668ae8e7984c61736e10b1fbedba
f7f59.html

NO.7 You want to load an image into your Share pod. What should you do?
A. Paste the image from your clipboard
B. Paste the image from your meeting room
C. Load the image from the Content library
D. Load the image from a website
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement about using a whiteboard overlay within a presentation is true?
A. You can use the whiteboard toggle to add and remove tools.
B. You can use the whiteboard tools to zoom in to an area of a document.
C. A whiteboard overlay is associated with a specific page of content.
D. You can directly save what you add to a whiteboard.
Answer: C

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