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Exam Code: ST0-085
Exam Name: Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-270
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix
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Exam Code: ASC-091
Exam Name: ASC Data Protection 2010
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NO.1 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.3 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

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NO.7 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

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NO.8 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-174
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Exam Code: ST0-172
Exam Name: Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: ASC-090
Exam Name: ASC IT Compliance 2010
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NO.1 A Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) administrator has written a simple Perl script to
convert HEX format to a dotted decimal number to aid forensic analysis of attack packets recorded by the
Network Intrusion Detection system. They have used this script in a user action. However, the user action
is failing. What is the problem?
A. Only shell scripts are supported for custom user actions.
B. Perl interpreter is not installed on the Archive Server.
C. Only Java scripts are supported for custom user action.
D. Perl interpreter is not installed on the SSIM client machine.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In Control Compliance Suite (CCS) Reporting and Analytics, where do administrators add content for
new regulations not already included?
A. from the CCS Console, in "Manage > Polices" select "New Regulation"
B. in Content Studio, choose "Mandates", right-click, and then choose "New Regulation"
C. New regulations cannot be added to Reporting and Analytics.
D. from a SQL script, write an INSERT statement to create the new content on the SQL Database Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company is receiving "disk full" errors on the volume hosting the RMS Information server database.
They are running native RMS queries and saving the historical reports. What is the process for deleting
outdated RMS historical data sets?
A. from the Control Compliance Suite Console, under the System > General > Data Purge menu,
configure the Purge Settings to run a data purge job
B. from the RMS console, run an RMS Query using the "Show Advanced Data Sources" option, and use
Active Admin to delete historical data
C. on the Information server, stop the BVProcessManager Service, then stop and restart the SQL Server
Service, then restart the BVProcessManager Service
D. on the Information server, stop all RMS Services, and then use the Microsoft command-line tool
"OSQL.EXE" to purge the "QUERY_RESULTS" table
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator sees the following in the agent log: ERROR [Logging]
com.symantec.management.security. HostnameVerificationFailureException SESA Agent
Symc_ConfigProvider: Failed to bootstrap to primary management server https: What are two reasons for
this? (Select two.)
A. The name resolution is not working.
B. Agent failed to download the SSL certificate.
C. There is a hostname mismatch with the SSL certificate.
D. Another host with same hostname is already registered.
E. Bootstrapping is disabled on the Information Manager.
Answer: A, E

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NO.5 A company reports that Windows Data Collection jobs using the RMS data collector never complete.
UNIX Data Collection jobs complete normally. The administrator suspects that one of the Slave Query
Engines might be failing to respond. Which troubleshooting step should be used to determine which Slave
Query Engine might be hanging?
A. from the RMS Console, log in under the Data Processor Service Account, and check the "Task Status"
screen
B. on the Information server, review the Application log
C. in bv-Config, check the "Query Engine Diagnostics- Master" for Slave Query Engine job statuses
D. in the Control Compliance Suite Console, on the Settings > System Topology Menu, Choose "Monitor
System Jobs"
Answer: C

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251-351 Real Questions, 251-250 Free download, 250-240 Exam PDF

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Exam Code: 251-351
Exam Name: Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows
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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX
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Exam Code: 250-240
Exam Name: Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX
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NO.1 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.5 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 510-702
Exam Name: Sybase IQ Administrator Professional Certification (Version 15.2)
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NO.1 What is the recommended minimum RAM for a Sybase IQ Server?
A. 1GB - 2GB per server
B. 4GB - 8GB per server
C. 1GB - 2GB per core
D. 4GB - 8GB per core
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are a DBA user and have two open connections to the database. In one connection you are
creating a HG index on a table which will require another 30 minutes to build. In the second connection
you attempt to issue an Alter Table to drop a column on the same table. What will happen?
A. The drop column will succeed but will not occur until the HG index build completes.
B. If you issue an explicit commit first, the drop column will succeed while the HG index is being created.
C. The drop column command will fail.
D. The drop column command will succeed immediately.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When granting special permissions to users with the GRANT command, all of the following are valid
privileges EXCEPT:
A. RESOURCE
B. DBA
C. SYS
D. GROUP
E. MEMBERSHIP IN GROUP
Answer: C

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NO.4 What governs the rules for user logins?
A. sp_iqaddlogin
B. Verify_Password_Function
C. User Roles
D. Login Policies
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which sequence represents the permissions hierarchy Sybase IQ?
A. DBA ? Group ? Individual
B. DBA ? Individual ? Group
C. Group ? DBA ? Individual
D. Group ? Individual ? DBA
Answer: B

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NO.6 Sybase IQ snapshot versioning?Sybase IQ snapshot versioning
A. allows updates to tables while users are reading the data.
B. makes new table versions available automatically without explicit commit/rollbacks.
C. stores a complete copy of each table per version.
D. supports ANSI isolation level 0 reads.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Sybase IQ transaction control?
A. Individual rows may be locked
B. Individual blocks may be locked
C. Individual pages may be locked
D. Individual tables may be locked
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which stored procedure displays the SQL command executing for each connection?
A. sp_iqtransaction
B. sp_iqconnection
C. sp_iqcontext
D. sp_iqstatus
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SUN SIGMA BLACK BELT CERTIFICATION
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NO.1 A student developer has created a new library of math functions to share with friends in a linear algebra
class. The developer is having difficulty getting people to come over to the dorm to see the new code
library, so he decides to deploy it as a Web service so that everyone can enjoy the features via the
Internet. One of the functions has this WSDL definition:
<portType name="MyMathLib">
<operation name="incCtr">
<input message="tns:incCtr"/>
</operation>
</portType>
Which two statements are true about this Web service? (Choose two.)
A. This is an asynchronous receive.
B. This is an asynchronous send.
C. The client must use SOAPFaultException to display any errors.
D. It must send a SOAP fault back to the sender.
E. It must NOT send a SOAP fault back to the sender.
Answer: BE

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NO.2 A developer is analyzing an existing Web service with performance problems. The analysis reveals
the service employs SOAP over HTTP. When the size of the encoded binary files grew with changing
business requirements, the service slowed.
What are two effective solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Separating the XML and binary content with WS-Filtering implemented in WSIT will improve efficiency.
B. XML documents larger than 1 KB with binary encoding should be optimized.
C. WS-Addressing can ease congestion by routing messages over other protocols.
D. For existing services, the most effective solution is to increase the available bandwidth.
E. MTOM can reduce both processing and bandwidth required by SOAP with attachments.
Answer: BE

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NO.3 According to the WS-I Basic Profile 1.1, which two statements are true about the targetNamespace
attribute for xsd:schema elements that are children of WSDL 1.1 type element? (Choose two.)
A. Its value must be valid unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.
B. Its value must be empty unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.
C. It should have same the value as the namespace attribute on the wsdl:import element in a document
being imported.
D. It must have same the value as the namespace attribute on the wsdl:import element in a document
being imported.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about the role of XML schemas in Web services? (Choose two.)
A. DTDs provide stricter data typing than XML schemas.
B. XML schemas can be used to validate the organization of XML documents.
C. XML schemas contain a vocabulary, content model and data types.
D. DTDs are easier to map to Java than XML schemas, and so remain more popular.
E. The W3C recommends that XML schemas be referred to as XSD.
F. The W3C has designated that XML schemas be referred to as WXS.
Answer: BC

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NO.5 A company has contracted a developer to create their new accounting system. The system the
developer will replace runs a monolithic web application using one web server and one database server.
Technical requirements state the developer must write the business logic in Java, deploy to the
application server and push the presentation logic onto the web servers.
What are three characteristics of services in the proposed Service Oriented Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Services are coarse grained.
B. Services are finely grained.
C. Services are loosely coupled.
D. Services are tightly coupled.
E. Clients must be implemented in the Java technology.
F. Services are platform agnostic, network-addressable web APIs.
Answer: ACF

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NO.6 A company uses Web services to exchange mortgage and credit data as well as digital versions of
associated documents. The data is confidential and it is common for the service and client to exchange
applications, credit results, reports and more in a request/response format. Recently, the company has
become concerned about the substantial cost of processing and message encryption with a PKI
approach.
What can be done to cut costs?
A. use MTOM to optimize the messages and provide data confidentiality via XML Digital Signature
B. because of the weak adoption of WS-SecureConversation on Java platforms, consider using Kerberos
C. use HTTPS as it is both economical and adequate
D. use WS-SecureConversation and MTOM to reduce the processing overhead
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given the Java fragment and schema:
1. //-- Java code fragment
2. public enum USState {MA, NH}
3. //-- Schema fragment
4. <xs:simpleType name=xsState?
5. <xs:restriction base=xs:string?
6. <xs:enumeration value=NH?/>
7. <xs:enumeration value=MA?/>
8. </xs:restriction>
9. </xs:simpleType>
10. // .NET auto generated code from schema
11. public enum usState { NH, MA }
Which statement is true about .Net and WCF interoperability for this data?
A. Based on the fragment, enumerations map well between Java and .Net.
B. The subtle differences in the variable names make it clear these enumerations are NOT interoperable.
C. The XML schema reveals the type on the enumeration is lost across the platforms.
D. This exchange would be interoperable if the annotation @XmlEnum was applied to the Java method.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A team of developers is designing RESTful Web services for a new application.
What are three properties of the services? (Choose three.)
A. They can be stateful.
B. They can be stateless.
C. Components communicate by exchanging representations of the resource.
D. Components communicate by directly performing operations on the resource.
E. They require WSDL service API definitions.
F. Responses can be labeled as cacheable or non-cacheable.
Answer: BCF

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NO.1 The following output is displayed:
Which SAS program created this output?
A. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables gender * answer / nocol norow nopercent;
run;
B. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables answer * gender / nocol norow nopercent;
run;
C. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables gender * answer / nocol norow nopercent missing;
run;
D.proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables answer * gender / nocol norow nopercent missing;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT;
by code descending date cost;
run;
Which statement is true regarding the submitted program?
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE.
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order.
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library.
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following data set:
Which SAS program produced this output?
A. proc sort data=one(where=(age>50)) out=two;
by subjid;
run;
B. proc sort data=one(if=(age>50)) out=two;
by subjid;
run;
C. proc sort data=one out=two;
where=(age>50)
;
by subjid;
run;
D. proc sort data=one out=two;
if age>50;
by subjid;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which SAS program will apply the data set label 'Demographics' to the data set named DEMO.?
A. data demo (label='Demographics')
;
set demo;
run;
B. data demo;
set demo (label='Demographics')
;
run;
C. data demo (label 'Demographics')
;
set demo;
run;
D. data demo;
set demo;
label demo= 'Demographics'
;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.5 What information can be found in the SAS Dictionary tables? (Choose two.)
A. datasets contained within a specified library
B. values contained within a specified format
C. variables contained within a specified dataset
D. values contained within a specified variable
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Given the following data set:
Which program was used to prepare the data for this PROC PRINT output?
A. proc sort data=one out=two;
by subjid;
run;
B.proc sort data=one out=two nodupkey;
by subjid;
run;
C. proc sort data=one out=two nodup;
by subjid;
run;
D. proc sort data=one out=two nodupkey;
by subjid trt;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement correctly adds a label to the data set?
A. DATA two Label="Subjects having duplicate observations"
;
set one;
run;
B. DATA two;
Label="Subjects having duplicate observations"
;
set one;
run;
C. DATA two;
set one;
Label dataset="Subjects having duplicate observations";
run;
D. DATA two(Label="Subjects having duplicate observations")
;
set one;
run;
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following data at WORK DEMO:
Which SAS program prints only the first 5 males in this order from the data set?
A. proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5)
;
run;
B. proc print data=WORK.DEMO(obs=5)
;
where Sex='M'
;
run;
C. proc print data=WORK.DEMO(where=(sex='M'))
;
where obs<=5;
run;
D. proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex descending;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5)
;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE of the relationship between the RemoteAccess VPN
Community and the Security Policy Rule Base?
A. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to allow access to
protected resources.
B. The RemoteAccess VPN Community is used to allow access to protected resources.
The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections.
C. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. The
RemoteAccess VPN Community applies only SecureClient.
D. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. Security
Policy Rules are not defined for SecuRemote.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Ken us assisting a user whose SecurityClient password has expired. The SecureClient user can no
longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from sending corporate
files to external FTP Servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
B. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
D. Block FTP_PASV.
E. Block all FTP traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are importing a URI specification file from the Match tab on the URI Resource Properties screen.
Where is the editable URI specification file stored?
A. Policy Server
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Enforcement Module
D. SmartCenter Server
E. Enterprise Log Module
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between VPN Domains and VPN
Communities?
A. A VPN Domain is a network, or group of networks, protected by and Enforcement Module. A VPN
Community is a collection of VPN Domains and the VPN tunnels between them.
B.
A VPN Domain is a remote-access VPN, consisting of a group of SecureClients and their associated
Enforcement Module. A VPN Community is a collection of Enforcement Module-to-Enforcement Module
VPNSs.
C. VPN Domains are used in Microsoft environments, and allow VPN-1/FireWall1- to communicate with
Domain Controllers. VPN Communities are used in Unix environments, to allow VPN-1/FireWall-1 to
communicate with authentication servers.
D. VPN Domains specify encryption properties and access restrictions for users. VPN Communities detail
encryption properties and access restrictions, for machines and processes.
E. VPN Domains are used for Security Policies created in traditional mode. VPN Communities are used in
simplified mode. VPN Domains are not available, if simplified mode is used.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Vered is a Security Administrator preparing to migrate her organization's IKE VPNs from pre-shared
secrets to PKI with certificates. Vered's organization has client-to-site VPNs between SecureClients and
Enforcement Modules, and site-to-site VPNs between Enforcement Modules. Vered will use the
VPN-1/FireWall-1 Internal Certificate Authority (ICA), to generate and maintain certificates. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
Vered can:
A. Install and configure an OPSEC-certified Certificate Authority product. Vered cannot use the Internal
Certificate Authority (ICA) to accomplish this task.
B. Migrate the organization's site-to-site VPNs, but she cannot migrate the organization's client-to-site
VPNs.
C. Either migrate the PKI with certificates for her VPNs, or use the ICA for certificate generation and
maintenance. Vered cannot do both.
D. Migrate both the site-to-site VPNs and the client-to-site VPNs. She can use the ICA to generate and
maintain
certificates.
E. Migrate the organization's client-to-site VPNs, if she moves from SecureClient to SecuRemote. She
cannot
migrate the site-to-site VPNs.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Exhibit
Jacob configured a meshed VPN Community, with VPN properties set as shown below. Which of the
following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Jacob is using the default VPN property settings for a VPN-1/FireWall-1 meshed VPN Community.
B. Jacob's community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key
VPN-1/FireWall-1 supports.
C. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
D. If Jacob changes the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with: from AES-128 to 3DES, he will
increase
the encryption overhead.
E. If Jacob changes the setting, Perform key exchange encryption with: from 3DES to DES, he will
enhance the
VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.1 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: A

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NO.2 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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B. 40%
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D. 50%
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NO.6 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
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A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
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NO.7 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool
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A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: D

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NO.1 The two types of Global Collections in CA Spectrum are:
A. Public and private.
B. Static and dynamic.
C. Simple and complex.
D. Out-of-the-box and custom.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you want to import or export preferences from another user or group, you must have the privilege to
access the:
A. Users tab.
B. Groups tab.
C. Privileges tab.
D. Information tab.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is located in the partslist directory and contains the instructions that processed uses to start and
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A. IDB Files
B. server.xml
C. Proxy model
D. SystemEDGE agent
Answer: A

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NO.4 In the Contents pane of the OneClick Console, which tab displays a high-level schematic diagram of the
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A. List
B. Locater
C. Explorer
D. Topology
Answer: D

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A. Variables or clauses
B. Community strings or operators
C. Stored procedures or algorithms
D. Wildcards or regular expressions
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a valid example of the type of information that Apple collects from its
customers?
A.Credit card information.
B.Discussion blog postings mentioning Apple.
C.Apple product serial number and date of purchase.
D.Name, mailing address, phone number, email address.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam support to
avoid damage?
A.EMI clips
B.Video card
C.Large heat sink
D.Battery connector
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must provide your identity when you use Apple's Business Conduct Helpline.You may not contact
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A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Mac Pro (Early 2009) has SMC functionality split between a primary SMC on the backplane board,
and a secondary SMC on the processor board.What service issue should a technician be aware of when
servicing the Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A.SMC firmware must always match on both boards.
B.Three internal buttons must be pressed in order to reset both SMCs.
C.It is required to remove the memory riser card in order to reset the SMC.
D.Processor trays are interchangeable between similar Mac Pro (Early 2009) units.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The purpose of Apple's business conduct helpline is to _____.
A.ask technical support questions
B.report damaged service parts to Apple
C.report normal business operational details to Apple
D.raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple
Answer: D

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NO.6 What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A.Remove the processor tray.
B.Remove the hard drive carriers.
C.Remove the front inlet fan assembly.
D.Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The LED on a MacBook (13-inch Late 2009) MagSafe power adapter does not illuminate at all when it
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is the most likely cause of this symptom?
A.The MacBook has a faulty backup battery.
B.The MagSafe adapter needs to be reset first.
C.The MacBook has a faulty magnetic sleep sensor.
D.A MagSafe adapter connector pin is stuck down or dirty.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which section of any Apple Technician Guide is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an
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A.Views
B.Basics
C.Take Apart
D.Troubleshooting
Answer: C

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NO.1 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Knowledge Base
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customers iBook G4 forgets the time and date when the main battery is completely drained and
there is no AC adapter connected for several hours. Is this behavior normal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.3 What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The LED on a MacBook MagSafe power adapter doesn't illuminate at all when it's plugged into the
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cause of this symptom?
A. The MacBook has a faulty main battery.
B. The MagSafe adapter needs to be reset first.
C. The MacBook requires an SMC firmware update.
D. A MagSafe adapter connector pin is stuck down.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which THREE of the following symptoms would most likely be resolved by performing an SMC reset
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A. Computer does not turn on
B. Cursor is unresponsive in Finder
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep
Answer: ADE

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NO.6 According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart
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A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A MacBook Pro powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and
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the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated
Answer: D

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NO.8 A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an
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A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC.
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application.
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network?
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B.Packet replication
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D.Packet forwarding
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B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F.All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.3 Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
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C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
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NO.4 Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
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Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is false?
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are
connected
via a bridged LAN
Answer: C

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NO.6 Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B.oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit
Answer: A

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NO.8 The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D.Only (a) and (b) are true
E.All of the above
Answer: E

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