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Exam Code: 156-315.77
Exam Name: Check Point Security Expert R77
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NO.1 State Synchronization is enabled on both members in a cluster, and the Security Policy is
successfully installed. No protocols or services have been unselected for selective sync. Review the fw
tab -t connections -s output from both members.
Is State Synchronization working properly between the two members?
A. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #VALS in the connections table are not close.
B. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #PEAK for both members is not close in the
connections table.
C. Members A and B are synchronized, because #SLINKS are identical in the connections table.
D. Members A and B are synchronized, because ID for both members is identical in the connections
table.
Answer: A

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NO.2 By default, the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) uses this to send delta sync messages to other
cluster members.
A. Broadcast
B. Unicast
C. Multicast
D. Shoutcast
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three of the following components are required to ge a SmartEvent up and running?
1) SmartEvent SIC 2) SmartEvent Correlation Unit 3) SmartEvent Server 4) SmartEvent Analyzer 5)
SmartEvent Client
A. 2, 3, and 5
B. 3, 4, and 5
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: A

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NO.4 In an R77 Cluster, some features such as VPN only function properly when:
A. All cluster members have the same policy
B. All cluster members have the same Hot Fix Accumulator pack installed
C. All cluster members' clocks are synchronized
D. All cluster members have the same number of interfaces configured
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Fast Path Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.
B. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
C. Is not a valid upgrade method in R77.
D. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R75 to R77).
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: C

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NO.7 To back up all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of
which folder(s)?
A. $RTDIR/distrib
B. $RTDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
C. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db
D. $RTDIR/events_db
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is NOT true about Management Portal?
A. Choosing Accept control connections in Implied Rules includes Management Portal access
B. Management Portal requires a license
C. Default Port for Management Portal access is 4433
D. Management Portal could be reconfigured for using HTTP instead of HTTPS
Answer: A

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NO.1 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.8 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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NO.2 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 2 - Low?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 1 - Very Low?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Usually business related, with low risk
Answer: D

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NO.7 When analyzing Application Control data with SmartEvent, using the predefined queries, how
are the events grouped? In order of:
A. date/time
B. rule applied
C. risk
D. number of megabytes used
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.3 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.5 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.1 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and
accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should
be taken to achieve that?
-Use same hard drive for database directory, log files and temporary directory -Use Consolidation
Rules -Limit logging to blocked traffic only -Using Multiple Database Tables
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.3 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.5 To force clients to use integrity Security Workspace when accessing sensitive applications,
the Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP , etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE of the relationship between the RemoteAccess VPN
Community and the Security Policy Rule Base?
A. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to allow access to
protected resources.
B. The RemoteAccess VPN Community is used to allow access to protected resources.
The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections.
C. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. The
RemoteAccess VPN Community applies only SecureClient.
D. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. Security
Policy Rules are not defined for SecuRemote.
Answer: A

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longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from sending corporate
files to external FTP Servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
B. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
D. Block FTP_PASV.
E. Block all FTP traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are importing a URI specification file from the Match tab on the URI Resource Properties screen.
Where is the editable URI specification file stored?
A. Policy Server
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Enforcement Module
D. SmartCenter Server
E. Enterprise Log Module
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between VPN Domains and VPN
Communities?
A. A VPN Domain is a network, or group of networks, protected by and Enforcement Module. A VPN
Community is a collection of VPN Domains and the VPN tunnels between them.
B.
A VPN Domain is a remote-access VPN, consisting of a group of SecureClients and their associated
Enforcement Module. A VPN Community is a collection of Enforcement Module-to-Enforcement Module
VPNSs.
C. VPN Domains are used in Microsoft environments, and allow VPN-1/FireWall1- to communicate with
Domain Controllers. VPN Communities are used in Unix environments, to allow VPN-1/FireWall-1 to
communicate with authentication servers.
D. VPN Domains specify encryption properties and access restrictions for users. VPN Communities detail
encryption properties and access restrictions, for machines and processes.
E. VPN Domains are used for Security Policies created in traditional mode. VPN Communities are used in
simplified mode. VPN Domains are not available, if simplified mode is used.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Vered is a Security Administrator preparing to migrate her organization's IKE VPNs from pre-shared
secrets to PKI with certificates. Vered's organization has client-to-site VPNs between SecureClients and
Enforcement Modules, and site-to-site VPNs between Enforcement Modules. Vered will use the
VPN-1/FireWall-1 Internal Certificate Authority (ICA), to generate and maintain certificates. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
Vered can:
A. Install and configure an OPSEC-certified Certificate Authority product. Vered cannot use the Internal
Certificate Authority (ICA) to accomplish this task.
B. Migrate the organization's site-to-site VPNs, but she cannot migrate the organization's client-to-site
VPNs.
C. Either migrate the PKI with certificates for her VPNs, or use the ICA for certificate generation and
maintenance. Vered cannot do both.
D. Migrate both the site-to-site VPNs and the client-to-site VPNs. She can use the ICA to generate and
maintain
certificates.
E. Migrate the organization's client-to-site VPNs, if she moves from SecureClient to SecuRemote. She
cannot
migrate the site-to-site VPNs.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Exhibit
Jacob configured a meshed VPN Community, with VPN properties set as shown below. Which of the
following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Jacob is using the default VPN property settings for a VPN-1/FireWall-1 meshed VPN Community.
B. Jacob's community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key
VPN-1/FireWall-1 supports.
C. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
D. If Jacob changes the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with: from AES-128 to 3DES, he will
increase
the encryption overhead.
E. If Jacob changes the setting, Perform key exchange encryption with: from 3DES to DES, he will
enhance the
VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.1 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: A

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NO.2 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.5 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40,
and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is
HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Answer: D

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NO.6 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.7 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool
would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.8 If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum
number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: D

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NO.1 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e contents of the CD are copied to the packages
directory on the selected remote Security Gateway.
B. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e con t en t s o f t he CD a r e cop i ed t o t he Package
Repository on the SmartCenter Server.
C. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he packages d ir ec t o r y
on the selected remote Security Gateway.
D. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he Package R epos it o r y
on the SmartCenter Server.
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on SecurePlatfom, how is the system
recovered?
A. SecurePlatform will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.
B. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and reattempt the upgrade.
C. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command
cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>.
D. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file
name>.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are running the license_upgrade tool on your SecurePlatform Gateway. Which of the following
can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?
A. Simulate the license-upgrade process.
B. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository.
C. Perform the actual license-upgrade process.
D. View the status of currently installed licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Concerning these products: SecurePlatform, VPN-1 Pro Gateway, UserAuthority Server, Nokia OS,
UTM-1, Eventia Reporter, and Performance Pack, which statement is TRUE?
A. All but the Nokia OS can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
B. All but Performance Pack can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
C. All can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
D. All but the UTM-1 can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What tools CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. cpinfo
B. SecurePlatform Web UI
C. Nokia Voyager
D. snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.6 Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import
process?
A. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten.
B. It will conflict with any future upgrades run from SmartUpdate.
C. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted.
D. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A. VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
B. VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
C. VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
D. None, all versions require a license upgrade
Answer: B

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NO.8 You plan to migrate an NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 SmartCenter Server on Windows to
VPN-1 NGX R65. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 Pro Gateways at remote offices, and one local
VPN-1 Pro Gateway at your company's headquarters. The SmartCenter Server configuration must be
migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD on the SmartCenter Server, select "Upgrade".
2. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
3. Reinstall all gateways using NGX R65 and install a policy.
B. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD in the SmartCenter Server, select "Export".
2. Install VPN-1 NGX R65 on a new PC using the option "Installation using imported configuration"
3. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
4. Upgrade software on all five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
C. 1. Copy the $FWDIR\conf directory from the SmartCenter Server.
2. Save directory contents to another file server.
3. Uninstall the SmartCenter Server, and install a new SmartCenter Server.
4. Move the saved directory contents to $FWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files.
5. Reinstall all gateways using VPN-1 NGX R65 and install a Security Policy.
D. 1. Upgrade the five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, using the NGX R65 CD.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What port is used for communication to the UserCenter with SmartUpdate?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. TCP 8080
D. CPMI
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of these components does NOT require a VPN-1 NGX R65 license?
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B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Answer: A

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NO.11 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on
SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via SmartUpdate. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the Repository
prior to upgrade?
A. SecurePlatform NGX R65 package
B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package
C. SecurePlatform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages
D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages
Answer: A

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NO.12 What action can be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. remote_uninstall_verifier
B. upgrade_export
C. mds_backup
D. cpinfo
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are a Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (Hotfix Accumulator) to ten Security
Gateways at five geographically separated locations. What is the BEST method to implement this HFA?
A. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update
B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely
C. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, initiate a
remote installation command and monitor the installation progress with SmartView Monitor.
D. Send a CDROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning contract verification?
A. Your contract file is stored on the User Center and fetched by the Gateway as needed.
B. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the SmartCenter Server.
C. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the Gateway.
D. Your contract file is stored on the SmartCenter Server and downloaded to the Security Gateway.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and
SmartCenter Server runs on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX R65 in a distributed
environment, where the new machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and the existing machine will be the
VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration,
including licensing.
How do you handle licensing for this NGX R65 upgrade?
A. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license also licensed to the new SmartCenter Server's IP address.
B. Leave the current license on the gateway to be upgraded during the software upgrade. Purchase a
new license for the VPN-1 NGX R65 SmartCenter Server.
C. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the existing gateway machine's IP address.
Request a new local license for the NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway using the new server's IP address.
D. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license for the existing gateway server's IP address.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Choose all correct statements. SmartUpdate, located on a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server, allows
you to:
(1) Remotely perform a first time installation of VPN-1 NGX on a new machine
(2) Determine OS patch levels on remote machines
(3) Update installed Check Point and any OPSEC certified software remotely
(4) Update installed Check Point software remotely
(5) Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
(6) Centrally manage licenses
A. 4, 5, & 6
B. 2, 4, 5, & 6
C. 1 & 4
D. 1, 3, 4, & 6
Answer: B

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NO.17 What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new
packages with SmartUpdate?
A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package
B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC
C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
D. SmartUpdate GUI PC
Answer: D

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NO.18 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway but the installation IS
NOT performed.
B. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he S m a rt U pda t e w i za r d
walks the Administrator through a Distributed Installation.
C. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
D. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay
the selected package is
copied from the CDROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. Get all Gateway Data
B. Reboot gateway
C. Preinstall verifier
D. Fetch sync status
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are using SmartUpdate to fetch data and perform a remote upgrade of an NGX Security Gateway.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. If SmartDashboard is open during package upload and upgrade, the upgrade will fail.
B. A remote installation can be performed without the SVN Foundation package installed on a remote NG
with Application Intelligence Security Gateway
C. SmartUpdate can query the SmartCenter Server and VPN-1 Gateway for product information
D. SmartUpdate can query license information running locally on the VPN-1 Gateway
Answer: B

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Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Endpoint Specialist - Media Encryption(CPEPS-ME))
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NO.1 There has been a security breach of your companys network and you must block clients
form downloading all files with an .inst extension. What is the correct approach to resolve this
issue?
A. Create the file extension in PSG, save the profile, and update all groups.
B. Load the default profile to groups in the organization until steps are taken to remove the
threat.
C. PSG does not support executing files having other than 3 character extensions and will
therefore block the file.
D. Selects the file extension in PSG, and reloads the profile appropriately.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Under what circumstances this command line procedure would be used? 1. osql.exe �CE 2.
Use disknet 3. update globle configuration set 4. go
A. To connect a local MSDE database installed on a machine using a Microsoft Trusted application
B. To unlock and access the Endpoint Security Media Encryption Server service.
C. To address a blue screen issue when using Endpoint Security media Encryption and McAfee
8.5i on a Windows Vista Enterprise machine
D. To connect to a remote SQL instance using trusted authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Fill in the blank if no Anti-Virus scanner or Pointsec DataScan is detected on the client
machine,then automatic authorization.
A. will be possible under certain restrictions.
B. will not be possible and access will not be granted.
C. is intiated with administrative approval Build Your Dreams PassGuide 156-708.70
D. will permit the user to authorization the device anyway.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the following image of a log event. Assume this device is frequently used, but you
cannot control its use to the extent it that id required. What is the most reliable solution to this
dilemma?
A. Add this device to Device Manager
B. Create e-mail alerts anytime this device is accessed
C. Create a media audit rule
D. require that the device be password encrypted
Answer: A

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NO.5 Can Endpoint Security Media Encryption import Novell user group?
A. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only work with Active Directory
B. Yes
C. Yes, if the Novell Server is using RADIUS with LDAP
D. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only uses RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.1 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.4 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.6 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.9 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> < IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing components.)
Answer: B

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NO.11 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.13 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.14 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.15 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

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NO.16 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces, then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model? Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.19 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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