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Exam Code: M2020-645
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v2
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Exam Code: C4040-221
Exam Name: AIX 7 Administration
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NO.1 Which major differentiator did version 10 introduce to the IBM Cognos BI interface.?
A. Separate workspaces for distinct roles.
B. Unified workspace for all users.
C. Mobile support for all functionality.
D. Ad hoc reporting capabilities.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the
competition?
A. Promotion of self-service.
B. Ability to consume information in a variety of formats, languages, and devices.
C. Consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire
organization.
D. Ability to build and automate business processes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one
concern?
A. Compliance
B. Business analytics
C. Mobility solutions
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a high-yield question when positioning IBM Cognos BI to the CIO of an
organization?
A. Do your users trust the data that they have access to?
B. How do you identify outliers in your business?
C. How do you handle information requests from the business?
D. What happens when management is not able to get information they need quickly?
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2180-189
Exam Name: Blueworks Live; IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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NO.1 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
should the BPM analyst use to map the activities needed for the review of the "hiring" request in
Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.6 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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NO.7 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

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NO.8 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-617
Exam Name: TSM Butterfly Migration Engine Sales Mastery V1
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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution Development
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NO.1 What is the duration for the import stage of a customer's collection?
A. It will take no more than 5 minutes per site.
B. It will depend on the customer's environment.
C. It will take no more than 5 minutes per server.
D. It will take no more than 5 minutes per customer.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What must a Migrator be able to do?
A. access the Source server only
B. access the Source and Target servers
C. access the Source, Target, and Migration Engine
D. access the Migration Engine as the Migrator can access the Source and Target Servers
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many TSM Butterfly Migration Engines are required?
A. at least one
B. one at most
C. one per data type
D. one per data center
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a Phase Period?
A. It is 3 months.
B. It is defined by TB.
C. It is a custom defined period of months.
D. It is an automatically determined migration period.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a Node Group?
A. a set of library media
B. a set of backup policies
C. a collection of backup clients
D. a collection of backup servers
Answer: D

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/au/downloads/Storage/Session_5_Migrating_to_TS
M.pdf(Slide 41)
7. Which statement is true about how the target solution should be designed?
A. using the Migration Engine
B. exactly as defined in the AER (Analysis Engine Report)
C. within legacy system standards
D. consider contemporary principles
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true about a proof of concept?
A. It is not available locally.
B. It must use only one Phase.
C. It will only migrate TSM5 data.
D. It follows the same methodology of a full migration.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What key security issue is addressed using the Mediator / Migrator approach?
A. It ensures no customer data leaves the data center.
B. It ensures no customer data is left on the source platform.
C. It ensures all components can be provided as Software as a Service.
D. It ensures all customer data is encrypted during export from the data center.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2020-701
Exam Name: IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Analyst
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Exam Code: A2090-556
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Exam Code: A2040-405
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update
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NO.1 How is the DBINFO function used in the SQL statement below? SELECT FIRST 1
DBINFO('sessionid')
FROM systables;
A. The DBINFO function sets the session id.
B. The DBINFO function creates a new session.
C. The DBINFO function returns the current session id.
D. The DBINFO function is a wrapper to the systables table.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are user created temporary tables used for?
A. To persistently write temporary data to disk.
B. To share result sets across multiple sessions.
C. To access a temporary result set within one session.
D. To automatically delete data based on a time policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which URL syntax is NOT used for DRDA communications?
A. jdbc:ids
B. jdbc:db2
C. jdbc:informix
D. jdbc:db2j:net
Answer: C

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NO.4 When is a cursor necessary in an SQL program?
A. A cursor is necessary before an after trigger can be created.
B. A cursor is necessary when a query returns one row and you wish to examine its content
and maybe
update it or delete it.
C. A cursor is necessary when a query returns more than one row and you wish to examine
their content
before an update or delete statement is executed.
D. A cursor is only necessary when using DISTINCT, UNIQUE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY or
aggregates in
SQL statements.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the syntax to query a table that resides on a remote Informix database?
A. database@server:[owner.]table
B. database@server:databasename:[owner.]table
C. database@server:user:password:[owner.]table
D. database@server:databasename:user:password:[owner.]table
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two values can be used for connection type field from sqlhosts file when using
Distributed
Relational Database Architecture (DRDA) protocol? (Choose two.)
A. ontlitcp
B. onipcshm
C. onsoctcp
D. drtlitcp
E. drsoctcp
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 A user has opened two sessions, SESSION_1 and SESSION_2, connecting to the
same database
containing a table named customer. The following query is executed first from SESSION_1
and then from
SESSION_2 (without closing SESSION_1): SELECT * FROM customer INTO TEMP
cust_temp What is
the outcome in SESSION_2?
A. A locking error.
B. SELECT query will wait till SESSION_1 has ended.
C. Error indicating Temp table (cust_temp) already exists.
D. All rows from customer table will be retrieved intocust_temp table.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement describes a select cursor?
A. It is used when you associate an EXECUTE FUNCTION statement with a cursor.
B. It is a cursor that uses the FETCH option to retrieve successive rows of data from another
cursor.
C. It is the representation of columns or values that a user-defined function returns after a
SELECT
statement.
D. It is a data structure that represents the active set of rows that the SELECT statement
retrieved.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2090-558
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Certified Database Assoc - Informix Fundamentals 11.70
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Exam Code: A2090-421
Exam Name: Assessment: InfoSphere DataStage v8.5
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NO.1 Which two of the following are required for creating a dbspace? (Choose two.)
A. a mirror chunk
B. two or more chunks
C. a cooked file or raw device
D. a file owned by root or administrator
E. dbspace name containing only letters, digits, underscores, or $ characters.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 You have a database server environment where all databases use buffered logging. In which two
conditions are the logical-log buffers in shared memory flushed to the logical log on disk? (Choose two.)
A. When the buffer is full.
B. When a checkpoint occurs.
C. When a user issues a begin work.
D. When a user commits the transaction.
E. When a user rolls back the transaction.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 When restoring data, which granularity of object may NOT be restored?
A. a single table
B. a single chunk
C. a single dbspace
D. an entire instance
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to use sqlhosts file /newlocation/newsqlhosts. Which of the following is true?
A. sqlhosts file must be called sqlhosts
B. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/sqlhosts
C. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/newsqlhosts
D. sqlhosts file must be defined under $INFORMIXDIR/etc/ directory
Answer: C

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NO.5 A progammer wants to unload a table to a file inside a stored procedure. What functionality listed
below will help the programmer accomplish the task?
A. dbload
B. dbexport
C. external table
D. SQL unload statement
Answer: C

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NO.6 How can you determine which databases are created in an instance?
A. use dbschema utility
B. inspect ONCONFIG file
C. List reserved pages with oncheck -pr
D. run SELECT name FROM sysmaster:sysdatabases
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two system level databases? (Choose two.)
A. sysperf
B. sysadmin
C. sysmaster
D. sysmonitor
E. sysscheduler
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which command would you execute to restore to a specific moment-in-time.?
A. onbar -t timestamp
B. onbar -r -log lognum
C. onbar -r -t timestamp
D. onbar -r -l timestamp
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM Kenexa Talent Acquisition Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2020-622
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 10 BI Administrator
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NO.1 A user wants to be able to view the contents of a container entry, such as a package or
a folder, and
view general properties of the container itself without having full access to the content. Which
permission
does the administrator assign to the user.?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Traverse
D. Set Policy
Answer: C

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NO.2 To be able to access and modify any object within the portal, regardless of any security
policies set for
the object, the administrator must be a member of whichbuilt-in role?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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NO.3 After the installation of IBM Cognos BI, what must be done to ensure that only select
users have
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A. Add the Anonymous user to the Directory Administrators role.
B. Remove the Everyone group from the Server Administrators role.
C. Remove the Everyone group from the System Administrators role.
D. Remove the All Authenticated Users group from the Directory Administrators role.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K34
Exam Name: Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions
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NO.1 Which HP resource can be used to obtain the latest information on operating system support
in an
HP 3PAR Storage System environment?
A. HP Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge
B. HP 3PAR Storage System Information Library
C. HP Product Bulletin
D. HP Active Answers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/14433_na/14433_na.pdf(page 3, see
the text in blue)

NO.2 When using notification settings in Service Tools and Technical Support (STaTS). Which task
can you perform with Symptom?
A. Disable a specific notification
B. Enable a specific notification
C. Create a notification record.
D. Manage a set of notifications.
Answer: C

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0 5.pdf(page 11)

NO.3 As a consultant, you are configuring Peer Motion during an initial setup of the HP 3PAR
StoreServ systems. What must you consider to ensure the correct configuration of a Peer Motion
environment?
A. Executing the Peer Motion Manager script requires Browse user-rights for the accounts used to
log in to the source array and Super user-rights for the destination array.
B. Two FC switches are required; only fabric connections on initiator ports are supported, and the
host and source system must use the same IP protocol version.
C. The Peer Motion Manager script executes in a command window of Microsoft Windows running
on a Peer Motion Manager Server.
D. The WWN of the VLUNs imported to the new array will become the S/N of the legacy array.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are discussing solutions with a customer who wants to use Peer Motion on the HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7400. The customer inquires about the specific requirements and limitations of this
solution. What should you tell them to consider?
A. A maximum of 150 Peer Motion migration tasks can be created by PMM, but only nine of them
run in parallel; the task moves region by region.
B. The destination array requires two free FC ports for Peer Motion: one port in peer mode to
connect to the source array and one to connect to the host that owns the VLUNs that will be
migrated.
C. Volumes in a 3PAR domain on the source array will be placed in the same domain on the
destination array
D. Peer Motion acts as a host-based volume-mirroring solution and requires a license installed on
the source and on the destination array.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which situation prevents you from using SmartStart to install an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
system at a customer site?
A. DHCP is not running in the customer environment
B. The customer will not allow remote access of the Service Processor
C. The controller nodes and the service processor are connected to the same network.
D. All the customer servers are running Windows 2008 R2.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is correct about using the Guided Maintenance (GM) scripts on an HP 3PAR
StoreServ system?
A. The GM scripts have to be run on a 3PARsvc to replace the drive chassis midplane.
B. The Service Processor and node clock battery cannot be removed and replaced by using the GM
scripts.
C. The GM scripts have to be run on a 3PARsvc to replace the Service Processor.
D. The Controller Node and drive cage cannot be removed and replaced by using the GM scripts.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are running the SmartStart Installation procedure to install an HP StoreServ 7400 Storage
System. Which users, created during the installation process, will have access to this storage system?
(Select two.)
A. 3paradm
B. 3parcust
C. 3parAO
D. 3parSP
E. 3PARrm
Answer: A,B

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2 6.pdf(search for 3paradm and 3parcust)

NO.8 Which zoning rule must be followed to implement Remote Copy over Fibre Channel?
A. Every FC port used for Remote Copy should be zoned with the hosts whose LUNs are replicating.
B. All FC ports on odd nodes should be zoned with the FC ports on the even remote node.
C. A Remote Copy FC port should be zoned to only one other Remote Copy FC port on another
system.
D. All Remote Copy FC ports in a storage server should be placed in the same zone.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S34
Exam Name: Implementing HP Rack and Tower Server Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-K37
Exam Name: Selling HP Storage Solutions and Services
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Exam Code: HP2-Z30
Exam Name: Fast Track - Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
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NO.1 Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage
networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?
A. Operator
B. Administrator
C. Manager
D. Maintainer
Answer: D

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NO.2 A network administrator has created and applied a configuration to an HP Provision switch.
The network administrator then copied the active configuration to a TFTP server. Upon examining
the configuration file on the TFTP server, the network administrator noticed that the operator and
manager passwords were not in the saved configuration file.
Which command must the network administrator execute to accomplish this task?
A. include-credentials
B. include-passwords
C. save-credentials
D. backup-accounts
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a key emerging standard protocol that HP Virtual Application Networks (VAN) use to
implement Software-Defined Networks (SDN)?
A. IMC
B. OpenFlow
C. FlexFabric
D. OpenStack
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer must connect networks in two buildings. The buildings are 15 meters apart. The
customer does not want the additional cost of installing fiber between the two buildings and thus is
exploring wireless options.
If the customer selects an 802.11n wireless solution, which wireless mode should they use?
A. inline
B. infrastructure
C. in-cell relay
D. multipoint
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?
A. 5120-SI
B. 5820
C. 7500
D. 12500
Answer: B

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6. What are the correct factory default settings when the HP Comware and Provision switches
are originally booted?
A. Provision and Comware switches have Telnet enabled.
B. Provision and Comware switches have all Layer 2 interfaces disabled.
C. Provision and Comware switches have default passwords defined.
D. Provision and Comware switches have Layer 3 switching disabled.
Answer: D

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7. Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before
allowing them access to network resources?
A. 802.1X
B. MIMO
C. 802.1Z
D. WPA
Answer: A

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8. Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?
A. Log Parser
B. Event Analyzer
C. Information Center
D. Event Log
Answer: C

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9. Refer to the network exhibit.
Assume the network shown in the exhibit has implemented RSTP Based on the topology, which port
is a root port?
A. SwrtchAport2
B. SwitchD port 1
C. SwitchC port 2
D. SwitchB port 1
Answer: C

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10. What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP
MSM access point?
A. username of "hp" and password of "hp"
B. username of "msm" and password of "wireless"
C. username of "admin" and password of "hp"
D. username of "admin" and password of "admin"
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP5-T01D
Exam Name: Delta - Supporting HP Industry Standard Server Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-N36
Exam Name: HP Vertica Solutions [2012]
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NO.1 You replaced a Smart Array P812 in a ProLiant DL380 G7 storage server. What should you do
next?
A. Check the FBWC charge.
B. Replace the cache module.
C. Install the BBWC battery.
D. Verify that the firmware level is current.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why should you use an electrostatic discharge (ESD) wrist strap when replacing parts such as
memory DIMMs?
A. It prevents the part from being damaged by static electricity.
B. It incorporates high resistance and dissipates electrical charges into the ozone.
C. A 48 V DC PSU will contribute to higher static electricity.
D. A current of more than 75 mA can kill someone.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which steps should you perform to save a Virtual Connect configuration?
A. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, show config, save
B. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, inventory
C. from CLI: show all > cfg,txt
D. VCM, Tools, Backup/Restore Domain Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.4 What should be installed on a ProLiant Gen8 server to display operating system information
within the iLO 4 GUI?
A. HP Management Agents
B. System Management Home Page
C. Agentless Management Service
D. ProLiant Support Pack
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03488111 /c03488111.p
d f

NO.5 Where can you verify the status of an external DVD-ROM drive in a c7000 enclosure?
A. Active Health Log
B. Integrated Management Log
C. Virtual SAS Manager
D. Insight Display
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which button should you press to enter the RBSU during POST?
A. F8
B. F9
C. F11
D. F12
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?objectID=c032559
24&prodSeriesId=5177953(See Using RBSU)

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Exam Code: HP2-E58
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Exam Code: HP2-N28
Exam Name: Selling HP Fortify Security Assurance Solution
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NO.1 What are typical business drivers for HP Fortify solutions? (Select two.)
A. Suffered security breach
B. Compliance program
C. Reported performance issues
D. SLA improvement initiative
E. Cost reduction
Answer: B, E

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NO.2 Which acronym represents an open framework that helps organizations formulate and
implement a strategy for software security that is tailored to the specific risks facing the
organization?
A. WASP
B. SAMM
C. ISACA
D. ISSA
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://www.opensamm.org/ (first para)

NO.3 In the Software Security Assurance Maturity Spectrum, which statement is true for the "Fortify
(Prevention)" phase?
A. The security team is responsible for application security, and the development team supports
their effort.
B. The development team is responsible for application security with little or no support from the
security team.
C. The security team is responsible for application security with little or no support from the
development team.
D. The development team shares responsibility for application security, and the security team
supports their effort.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which stage of the development lifecycle does the implementation of an HP Fortify solution
provide the highest ROI?
A. Development
B. Performance
C. Testing
D. Production
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are elements of a reactive approach to application security?
A. Security testing is performed before deployment, and security gates are agreed upon (jointly
implemented) by the security and development teams.
B. Security testing is embedded into the SDLC, the security and the development teams work
together as a single team.
C. Security testing is performed in production by customers or ad-hoc testers, and the development
team is tasked with code fixes.
D. Security testing is
performed in production, and the operations team is responsible for security monitoring and code
fixes.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where do the majority of security breaches happen today?
A. Network layer
B. Host layer
C. Application layer
D. Access layer
Answer: C

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Reference:
https://www.owasp.org/images/7 /7b/OWASP-Italy_Day_IV_Morana.pdf (slide 8, first bullet)

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Exam Code: HP2-Z33
Exam Name: HP Unified Wired-Wireless Networks and BYOD
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Exam Code: HP2-B112
Exam Name: HP Document Workflow - Technical
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Exam Code: HP0-S40
Exam Name: Building HP Server Solution
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NO.1 An administrator changes the setting for VLAN 200 on an HP 830 switch from tagged to
untagged.
How will this change affect the traffic sent over VLAN 200?
A. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded to untagged VLAN 1.
B. Tagged management traffic can no longer be sent on VLAN 200.
C. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will have the 802.1Q tag removed.
D. Tagged traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded without changing the 802.1Q tag.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://community.spiceworks.com/topic/ 430141-understanding-vlans-with-tagged-andu
ntagged-traffic

NO.2 A network administrator configures 802.1X authentication on a wireless network set with an
HP 830 Unified Wired-Wireless Controller. The administrator configures a RADIUS scheme named
radius1 and a Domain scheme name domain1. Which other configuration will enable 802.1X?
A. Option A
B. OptionB
C. OptionC
D. OptionD
Answer: D

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NO.3 An organization implements an N+1 redundancy for its access controllers (ACs). When the
primary AC fails, the access points (APs) successfully fail over to the standby AC. However, when the
failed AC comes back in to service, the APs do not switch back to the original AC.
What could cause this to happen?
A. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 1.
B. APs determine which AC to connect to based on load.
C. APs do not fail back to the original AC.
D. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 7.
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Ro
uters/H3C_MSR_50_Series_Routers/Configuration/Operation_Manual/13WLAN_Volume(V1.05)/ 20
0909/ 648837_1285_0.htm(configuring capwap dual-link, 4th row of the table, last column)

NO.4 When accessing the wireless network in 802.1X with EAP-TLS, what do the user endpoints
require?
A. username and password of the user's account
B. client certificate or root certificate
C. client certificate and root certificate
D. MS-CHAPV2 to be configured
Answer: C

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Reference:http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc739638(v=ws.10).aspxv

NO.5 A branch location is deploying standalone wireless access points (APs).
What can be used to configure and manage these APs? (Select two.)
A. Access Controller
B. Web interface
C. IMC/UAM
D. IMC/EAD
E. CLI
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 An organization wants to upgrade their wireless network to allow employees to connect using
their 802.11ac enabled devices. Which HP access points meet this requirement?
A. HP 425
B. HPMSM466
C. HP MSM430
D. HP 560
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer is planning to deploy HP MSM466-R access points in an extreme cold environment
to interconnect to the Unified Wired-WLAN Module in the HP switch.
Which requirement is needed to accomplish this?
A. NEMA 4X enclosures should be used to house the access points.
B. Switch ports must support PoE.
C. PoE redundancy must be enabled on the interface.
D. Access Point must deploy internal antennas.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
What does AP Echo Interval of 10 seconds indicate?
A. The access controller should send the access point (AP) an echo request every 10 seconds to
ensure that the AP is still operational.
B. The access point should send the access controller an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure
that the LWAPP tunnel is up.
C. The access point should transmit a beacon every 10 seconds.
D. The access point should send the client an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure that the
client is still connected.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: FCNSA.v5
Exam Name: Fortinet Certified Network Security Administrator (FCNSA.v5)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as simple text, wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit updates banned words on a periodic basis.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 When firewall policy authentication is enabled, only traffic on supported protocols will trigger
an authentication challenge.
Select all supported protocols from the following:
A. SMTP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. FTP
E. SCP
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following antivirus and attack definition update options are supported by
FortiGate units? (Select all that apply.)
A. Manual update by downloading the signatures from the support site.
B. Pull updates from the FortiGate device
C. Push updates from the FortiGuard Distribution Network.
D. "update-AV/AS" command from the CLI
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 How is traffic routed onto an SSL VPN tunnel from the FortiGate unit side?
A. A static route must be configured by the administrator using the ssl.root interface as the outgoing
interface.
B. Assignment of an IP address to the client causes a host route to be added to the FortiGate unit's
kernel routing table.
C. A route back to the SSLVPN IP pool is automatically created on the FortiGate unit.
D. The FortiGate unit adds a route based upon the destination address in the SSL VPN firewall policy.
Answer: B

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6. In an IPSec gateway-to-gateway configuration, two FortiGate units create a VPN tunnel
between two separate private networks.
Which of the following configuration steps must be performed on both FortiGate units to support
this configuration? (Select all that apply.)
A. Create firewall policies to control traffic between the IP source and destination address.
B. Configure the appropriate user groups on the FortiGate units to allow users access to the IPSec
VPN connection.
C. Set the operating mode of the FortiGate unit to IPSec VPN mode.
D. Define the Phase 2 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to create a VPN tunnel with the
remote peer.
E. Define the Phase 1 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to authenticate the remote peers.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. A client can create a secure connection to a FortiGate device using SSL VPN in web-only mode.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of web-only mode SSL VPN?
A. Web-only mode supports SSL version 3 only.
B. A Fortinet-supplied plug-in is required on the web client to use web-only mode SSL VPN.
C. Web-only mode requires the user to have a web browser that supports 64-bit cipher length.
D. The JAVA run-time environment must be installed on the client to be able to connect to a
web-only mode SSL VPN.
Answer: C

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8. A FortiGate AntiVirus profile can be configured to scan for viruses on SMTP , FTP , POP3, and
SMB protocols using which inspection mode?
A. Proxy
B. DNS
C. Flow-based
D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: C

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9. Which of the following statements are correct regarding URL filtering on the FortiGate unit?
(Select all that apply.)
A. The allowed actions for URL Filtering include Allow, Block and Exempt.
B. The allowed actions for URL Filtering are Allow and Block.
C. The FortiGate unit can filter URLs based on patterns using text and regular expressions.
D. Any URL accessible by a web browser can be blocked using URL Filtering.
E. Multiple URL Filter lists can be added to a single protection profile.
Answer: A,C

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10. An administrator wants to assign a set of UTM features to a group of users.
Which of the following is the correct method for doing this?
A. Enable a set of unique UTM profiles under "Edit User Group".
B. The administrator must enable the UTM profiles in an identity-based policy applicable to the user
group.
C. When defining the UTM objects, the administrator must list the user groups which will use the
UTM object.
D. The administrator must apply the UTM features directly to a user object.
Answer: B

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11. An end user logs into the full-access SSL VPN portal and selects the Tunnel Mode option by
clicking on the "Connect" button. The administrator has enabled split tunneling.
Given that the user authenticates against the SSL VPN policy shown in the image below, which
statement below identifies the route that is added to the client's routing table.
A. A route to destination matching the 'WIN2K3' address object.
B. A route to the destination matching the 'all' address object.
C. A default route.
D. No route is added.
Answer: A

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12. A client can establish a secure connection to a corporate network using SSL VPN in tunnel
mode.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of tunnel mode SSL VPN? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Split tunneling can be enabled when using tunnel mode SSL VPN.
B. Client software is required to be able to use a tunnel mode SSL VPN.
C. Users attempting to create a tunnel mode SSL VPN connection must be authenticated by at least
one SSL VPN policy.
D. The source IP address used by the client for the tunnel mode SSL VPN is assigned by the FortiGate
unit.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 Which statement is correct regarding virus scanning on a FortiGate unit?
A. Virus scanning is enabled by default.
B. Fortinet Customer Support enables virus scanning remotely for you.
C. Virus scanning must be enabled in a UTM security profile and the UTM security profile must be
assigned to a firewall policy.
D. Enabling virus scanning in a UTM security profile enables virus scanning for all traffic flowing
through the FortiGate device.
Answer: C

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