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Exam Code: 000-087

Exam Name: IBM (IBM System x Technical Expert V6)

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NO.1 A banking customer has a firewall between their AMM and the remote console which is used to
configure the chassis and blades. Due to security concerns, port 80 (http) is being blocked, denying any
http access to the AMM.
Which of the following would facilitate remote communication with the AMM using a GUI interface?
A. port 443 - SSL connection
B. port 8080 ?http
C. port 22 - SSH CLI
D. port 427 - SLP connection
Answer: A

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NO.2 A banking customer plans to implement a BladeCenter H chassis. They plan for seven HS22 blades,
six HX5 blades with MAX5, one 1U external Fibre Channel switch, and two 3U Fibre Channel storage
devices with fourteen 146GB drives.
Which of the following is the minimum amount of rack space required to implement the solution?
A. 32U
B. 25U
C. 22U
D. 21U
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is concerned that the Windows server virtualization solution discussed with them seems to
be too leading edge. They are not comfortable with new technology
What information could be supplied to provide industry trends and directions of the solution?
A. Server Proven
B. Client references
C. xREF
D. IBM White Papers
Answer: B

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NO.4 A prospect is considering a BladeCenter H chassis with the Multi-Switch Interconnect Modules. The
number of Ethernet ports is important to them. What is the maximum number of Ethernet ports an HS22
blade server can support if the blade does not have any expansion blades attached?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: A

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NO.5 A retail customer has a database application that is accessed by a large number of people through a
web interface from multiple remote locations. Which of the following questions will provide the information
necessary to design the best performing storage solution?
A. How many web servers will be connected to the database?
B. How many concurrent applications will run against the database?
C. How many concurrent users will be accessing the database?
D. What are the types of transactions run against the database?
Answer: D

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NO.6 A prospective client needs to combine Ethernet, FCOE, and iSCSI. They have not been able to
practically combine these in the past.
Which of the following IBM products meets this need?
A. BladeCenter Open Fabric Manager (BOFM)
B. SAN Volume Controller (SVC)
C. Virtual Fabric for BladeCenter
D. Network Provisioning on Demand in the AMM
Answer: C

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NO.7 A healthcare and life sciences client wants to maintain electronic patient records, including medical
images, for two years after each patient's death.
How would the IT storage industry describe this business goal?
A. An archive solution that requires event-based retention
B. A backup solution that provides version-based expiration
C. A business continuity solution that provides two years Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
D. A business continuity solution that provides two years Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A client is experiencing bottlenecks in their IT environment.
Which of the following responses address this issue?
A. Meet with Operations Manager
B. Perform Scorpion study
C. Meet with CFO
D. Perform CDAT study
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer is considering iDataPlex and several competitive solutions.
Which of the following favor iDataPlex?
A. Lowest cost of acquisition
B. Useable density
C. Flexible configurations ready for integration and testing at the customers data center
D. Standard rack mounting
Answer: B

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NO.10 A mechanical contractor is deploying a custom application written to take advantage of multithreading
features and run in a Windows environment. The customer has read about iDataPlex, BladeCenter, and
System x servers. The customer wants to know which processor family will run the application most
efficiently. Which of the following questions will provide the required information?
A. Can the application use Hot Swap Processor, Memory, and PCI-X technology?
B. Will the application benefit from larger disk cache and swap space?
C. Will the application run faster with Microsoft OLTP technology?
D. What is the application's maximum processor scaling capability?
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-170

Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Analysis)

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NO.1 "Escalations" are best used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks.
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model.
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks.
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The "tolerance interval" in the intermediate timer event is used to:
A. specify an additional delay if the work is in progress.
B. build in a certain level of tolerable inefficiency into the process.
C. take into account weekends, holidays and other task downtimes.
D. specify an additional delay irrespective of whether the work is in progress or not.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the two functional gateway modes?
A. Splits and Joins
B. Simple and Complex
C. Exclusive and Inclusive
D. Decision and Conditional
Answer: A

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NO.4 What type of gateway is used when only one sequence flow is chosen to satisfy a condition?
A. Inclusive Gateway
B. Exclusive Gateway
C. Parallel Gateway
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the key benefit of a graphical notation standard for process modeling? A graphical notation
standard:
A. simplifies the business process requirements gathering.
B. allows for the proper evaluation of a documentation plus modeling tool.
C. clearly articulates process details, including problem information diagrammatically
D. allows for clear collaboration between business analysis, process design and developer
implementation.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-038

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Fundamental)

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NO.1 Which operation is valid when a user's identity is suspended given properly configured automatic
provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory Server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which policy type allows accounts and accesses to be validated periodically?
A. Identity
B. Adoption
C. Provisioning
D. Recertification
Answer: D

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NO.4 What can be achieved by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business protecting IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager?
A. data sync
B. access control
C. roles management
D. federated identity management
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.7 What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which product can be configured with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager for auditing requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Security Operation Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Compliance Operation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
Answer: B

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NO.9 JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C

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NO.11 Where does JavaScript defined with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) execute.?
A. browser
B. database
C. directory server
D. application server
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are two output formats generated by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 reports? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. DSML
E. Microsoft Word
Answer: B, C

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NO.13 What is a function of an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. to log access activities on the managed resource
B. to provide reporting capability on a managed resource
C. to create and modify accounts on a managed resource
D. to create and modify password rules on a managed resource
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which activity should be included during the requirements gathering phase for automating account
provisioning?
A. document reverse password synchronization
B. document challenge and response questions
C. document Self-Service Console requirements
D. document relationships between roles and accounts
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M67

Exam Name: IBM (IBM LotusLive Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)

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NO.1 Taylor, a paid subscriber to LotusLive Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer.
How would Taylor invite his customer (guests)?
A. Taylor can share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask them to visit the LotusLive site and
enter the meeting ID to join. His guest will simply need to enter their name before joining.
B. Taylor customer could not participate in the meeting since they are guests. He would have to record the
meeting and send a link to the video recording.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID, but when the customer click on the link,
they will be prompted to register. Once registered, they can then participate in the meeting.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for his guest to get registered. Once registration is
complete, they could join the meeting by visiting LotusLive site, authenticating with their credentials and
entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Tags are a very popular way of searching the content. Bob has emails related to XYZ customer.
How can he tag the emails and use this capability to search it later with LotusLive iNotes?
A. Bob can tag all incoming and outgoing email related to XYZ customer and sort his inbox via tag at a
later time.
B. Bob can right-click on all the emails related to XYZ customer and choose the tag option to find these
emails later in XYZ folder.
C. Tagging email and Tag Searching is not available in LotusLive iNotes.
D. Bob can navigate to iNotes mail, select the tag words, select the related emails and create a rule which
can be used to search at a later time.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which platform(s) can a customer run LotusLive on.?
A. Windows only
B. Windows and Linux
C. Windows, Linux and Mac
D. LotusLive does not run on a platform because it has its own operating system.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-185

Exam Name: IBM (Cognos 8 Migrating Professional Exam)

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NO.1 Which two rules describe how PowerPlay Client reports are migrated? (Choose two.)
A. Reporter reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Excel behavior.
B. Explorer reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Web behavior.
C. Reporter reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Client behavior.
D. Explorer reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Client behavior.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 The recommended approach to migration consists of five steps. Four of the steps are shown below: --
Create new applications in IBM Cognos 8 -- Continue using applications in IBM Cognos Series 7
environment -- Migrate applications to IBM Cognos 8 -- Migrate multiple applications to one application
Which step is missing?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Set up interoperability
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Perform training and education
Answer: B

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NO.3 From a technical perspective, which three applications can be upgraded rather than converted or
migrated? (Choose three.)
A. Visualizer
B. Decisionstream
C. NoticeCast
D. Metrics Manager
E. Transformer
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which two statements describe a successful migration? (Choose two.)
A. Pre-assessments, fact-finding, investigation, and execution are iterative approaches rather than a
one-time activity.
B. Identify specific goals for the migration project, and then ensure that the migration meets expectations
and adds value to your business intelligence environment.
C. Educate yourself and customers about IBM Cognos 8 and then evaluate the current IBM Cognos
Series 7 applications.
D. Use and leverage the Cognos Solution Implementation Methodology (CSIM) Migration Roadmap of
detailed activities and deliverables for a migration project.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 When migrating an Impromptu catalog, an xml file that uses the same file name already exists in the
target location. What will the migration process do?
A. Create a new folder called "migration" that includes the migrated xml file.
B. Create a new file to include a date time stamp.
C. Abort the process and write to the log file.
D. Replace the existing file.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which technical migration approach reflects using an offshore approach for additional savings of time
and money?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Hybrid
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Expand & Purge
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three chart types are supported when migrating a chart type within an Impromptu Report?
(Choose three.)
A. Pie
B. Bubble
C. Radar
D. Hi-low close
E. Gantt
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 When would a customer use Compress & Optimize.?
A. When similar reports can be consolidated into a single report.
B. When batches of BI reports can be moved over quickly to IBM Cognos 8.
C. When reports or models were not properly maintained and are no longer valid.
D. When dealing primarily with Impromptu Reports and Catalogs.
Answer: A

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NO.9 If your customer has not yet started a migration project, which migration path should they follow from
Series 7.3 to IBM Cognos 8.3?
A. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.3 version of the migration tools to
migrate from version 4 to 8.3
B. Migrate Series 7.3 content to IBM Cognos 8.3 andthen upgrade to IBM Cognos 8.4
C. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.4 version of the migration tools to
migrate to 8.4
D. Migrate Series 7.4 content to IBM Cognos 8.4 using the migration tools
Answer: A

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NO.10 With regards to Impromptu Catalog mapping, which statement is true?
A. Catalog, Report, and File pick list prompts are migrated to value prompts.
B. Impromptu table columns with the IsKey attribute set to "true" become query items with the usage
attribute set to "fact".
C. HotFiles and Snapshots are migrated, however User Defined Functions (UDFs) are not migrated.
D. Security filters for table aliases are not migrated.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: COG-700

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Planning Application)

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NO.1 A modeler wants to create a macro that updates all D-Cubes in the model. What is the fastest way for
the modeler to create this macro?
A. Use the Macro Record option
B. Use the Macro Run option
C. Use the Macro Wizard option
D. Use the Trace Macro option
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about using a D-Cube allocation in a D-Link?
A. The D-Cube used for the allocation can only have two dimensions
B. The D-Cube slice can contain data formatted as text, numeric, or date/time
C. A D-Cube slice can only be used for allocation in one D-Link
D. The D-Cube slice can only contain one page of data
Answer: D

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NO.3 In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration
extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?
A. A view only published data source
B. A table only published data source
C. A Contributor application data source
D. An Analyst application data source
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Cash Flow D-Cube tracks incoming and outgoing cash each month. The amount of cash going out
each month is always a fraction of the opening balance for the period (such as 20%). Which BiF should be
used to calculate the opening and closing balances?
A. @Movsum
B. @DelayDebt
C. @FeedParam
D. @StockFlow
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which method of mapping must the modeler use to change the sign (+/-) of selected data items being
transfered by D-Link?
A. Match description
B. Local allocation
C. D-Cube allocation
D. Saved A-Table
Answer: D

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NO.6 Users of the Contributor Web grid want to be able to import data from ASCII files and Excel files as well
as local Contributor dat a.
These end users do not have any rights in the Contributor Administration Console or Analyst. What must
these users create?
A. System Link
B. Administration Link
C. D-Link
D. Local Link
Answer: D

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NO.7 In a distributed Cognos Planning environment, where is the online Contributor application stored and
maintained?
A. On the datastore
B. On the report server
C. On the job server
D. On the dispatcher
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a D-Link using a virtual dimension on the source side called?
A. Lookup D-Link
B. Internal D-Link
C. Allocation D-Link
D. Accumulation D-Link
Answer: D

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NO.9 Why would an administrator publish data to a table-only layout, instead of a view layout?
A. The administrator wants to publish only detail (non-calculated) plan data.
B. The administrator wants to publish the data to an Oracle database.
C. The administrator wants to use the published data with the Publish to Cognos Metrics Manager
extension.
D. The administrator wants to publish the data to a SQL Server database.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A modeler creates a D-Link that transfers data from an ASCII file called Franchise into a D-Cube called
Income Statement. According to proven practices, what is the recommended name for the D-Link?
A. Franchise>Income Statement
B. Franchise.csv>Inc State
C. Income Statement<Franchise
D. Income Statement<Franchise.csv
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about sorting D-Cube data?
A. D-List items can be sorted alphabetically
B. Saving a D-Cube saves only the data but not the sort order
C. Rows can be sorted using one criteria and columns using another
D. An indicator appears on sorted D-Lists that allows switching of the sort order
Answer: C

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NO.12 A D-Cube calculates monthly revenue by product. Revenue for a product is equal to the unit sale price
multiplied by the quantity sold. If the modeler is applying a weighted average to the Unit Sale Price item,
which should be used for the weighting?
A. Revenue
B. Quantity sold
C. Number of months
D. Number of products
Answer: B

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NO.13 A target D-Cube in Analyst contains data for Central Europe, Southern Europe, and Northern Europe.
The modeler wants to transfer data into this D-Cube from an ASCII file that contains only data for
Southern Europe and Northern Europe. Given that all dimensions are paired using Match Description,
what must the modeler do to ensure that the Central Europe data in the target D-Cube does not get
erased when the D-Link runs?
A. Set the mode to Substitute
B. Assign Central Europe as the Dump item
C. Apply a "hold" command to data for Central Europe
D. Nothing; the D-Link will only transfer data for paired items
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and roles have access
to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.15 When importing from Cognos Package Data into an A-Table, what is the minimum number of query
items that must be selected?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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Exam Code: COG-645

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author)

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NO.1 In a crosstab, Campaign is in the rows area, Order method type is in the columns area, and Quantity is
the measure. Campaign and Order method type are specified in the query. The report runs, displaying
quantity values for all years. Why does this happen?
A. The dimension member from that dimension is implied.
B. The order method member from that dimension is implied.
C. The aggregate member from that dimension is implied.
D. The default member from that dimension is implied.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which term below best describes the selected cell in the crosstab?
A. Level
B. member
C. Tuple
D. Revenue
Answer: C

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NO.3 When would a report author define a set.?
A. To create a slicer to focus on a specific number of years of data in a report.
B. To change the crosstab node member properties for a level.
C. To use as a summary function to return the total of the specified members.
D. To return members from different hierarchies of the same dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What kind of authoring style uses the filter function?
A. Relational
B. Conformed
C. Dimensional
D. DMR
Answer: C

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NO.5 To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Attributes
D. MUNs
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M44

Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Advanced Level Technical Sales Mastery v1.0)

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NO.1 A Session Boarder Controller can protect against _______________
A. denial of service attacks.
B. excessive phone usage.
C. data loss.
D. loud dial tone volume
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are typical functions of a Session Boarder Controller?
A. Security ?to protect the network against attacks.
B. Connectivity ?NAT in the application layer.
C. Quality of Server ?Prioritization of flows.
D. A, B and C
Answer: D

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NO.3 What should be considered if a large configuration for TAS is planned?
A. There must be a 1:1 relation TAS to allocated media server.
B. At least one additional server for fail over purposes is required.
C. A maximum of 15000 users is allowed.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which methods are defined to transfer the Billing Data to the Billing Server?
A. Push and Pull Method.
B. Send and Fetch Method.
C. Bring and Take Method.
D. Deliver and Retrieve Method.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What parameter of a SUT soft-phone client can you configure?
A. Allowed codecs.
B. Sequence of codecs in a list.
C. Rights to add/modify preferred devices.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tool can add SUT subscribers?
A. CMP ?Common Management Portal
B. SBC ?Session Border Controller
C. TDI ?Tivoli Directory Integrator
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many stand-by TAS do you need.?
A. One.
B. At least one per cluster using the same SAN-resources.
C. As many as the active TAS's.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where can redundancy be applied?
A. Entire systems (to all components of system).
B. To the HD.
C. To the NIC.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which sequence for Initial Provisioning is correct?
A. Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
B. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
C. Installing TDI - Configuring setting section of settings.xml - Running the initial provisioning process -
Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
D. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Importing the
csv-output file via CMP.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How are the SUT user privileges for preferred devices managed?
A. Via a hidden config file on the client PC.
B. Via Policy settings on Sametime server.
C. Via registry entries on client PC.
D. Via different software versions of client plug-in.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-562

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 Implementation)

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NO.1 Where can a list of all the devices discovered by IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 be
viewed?
A. Reporting > System Reporting
B. System Reports > Disk > SAN Assets (All)
C. System Reports > Fabric > SAN Assets (All)
D. Data Manager > Reporting > Asset Reporting
Answer: C

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NO.2 When attempting to log in to the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) Graphical User
Interface (GUI) the user gets an access denied message. What is causing this error?
A. The TPC GUI service is down.
B. The user does not have a valid operating system login ID.
C. The user does not have Administrative Authority on the server.
D. The user has not been added to a mapped role or group within TPC.
Answer: D

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NO.3 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) is managing DS8000, DS6000, DS5000, DS4000,
DS3000, Element Management Clients, NetApp, Hitachi Data Systems, XIV storage subsystems, and
SAN Volume Controllers. A discovery job is scheduled to run every 6 hours and a probe job is scheduled
to run every 12 hours. Recently the probe job is the only one that has errors. What could be the problem?
A. The probe job failed on CIMOM devices.
B. The probe job is taking more than 12 hours.
C. The discovery job taking more than 6 hours.
D. The probe job is schedule to run indefinitely.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The History Aggregator is enabled by default to run every day at 3:00 a.m. Which two historical data
statistics can be used for trend analysis? (Choose two.)
A. disk removal statistics
B. disk capacity statistics
C. file modification statistics
D. file backup time statistics
E. file type space usage statistics
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Which two areas can configure history retention in order to perform historical analysis and reporting?
(Choose two.)
A. Scan
B. Probe
C. Computers
D. Filesystems
E. Performance Monitors
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 When including profiles in a scan the desired profiles can be highlighted in the Available Profiles list box
and applied to which two selectable sections? (Choose two.)
A. Files
B. Hosts
C. Directories
D. Filesystems
E. Operating System Types
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 A customer uses the Configure Wizard device to configure new or existing resources so that data is
collected on the configured group. Which resource can be configured with the wizard?
A. In-band Fabric Agent
B. SAN Volume Controller
C. Storage Resource Agent
D. VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which task must be completed to fine tune and control which files are scanned during a filesystem scan
and specify exactly which statistical information is gathered?
A. create a custom scan
B. create a custom probe
C. create a custom profile
D. create a custom Storage Resource Agent Group
Answer: C

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NO.9 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) Server audit logging initiated by the Graphical User
Interface writes to the log file at which location?
A. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\data\log\AuditTrace.log
B. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\device\log\AuditTrace.log
C. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\data\log\auditTPCDataServer.log
D. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\device\log\auditTPCDeviceServer.log
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer wants to manage devices in the same manner (storage, fabric, server, or tapes). Which
panel would be displayed in the Configure Device Wizard?
A. Select CIMOM
B. Select Devices
C. Select Device Preference
D. Select Storage Subsystem
Answer: B

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NO.11 What must be done before IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) manages network
attached storage (NAS)?
A. enable SNMP on the NAS filer
B. enable the Storage Resource Agent on the NAS filer
C. mount a file system of the NAS filer to the agent server
D. configure the CIMOM server to be on a trusted domain of the NAS filer
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command must be run for IBM DB2 before IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 is
installed in a UNIX environment?
A. ./usr/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
B. . /opt/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
C. . /home/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
D. . /home/sqllib/db2profile/db2inst1
Answer: C

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NO.13 In preparing for migration of all IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (TPC) components to the newest
level, the implementing person installed an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup/Archive client on
the TPC Server and configured it to run standard file backups of the local filesystems. What is the best
practice backup method for TPC?
A. online backup using TSM API for Databases to save TPC configuration
B. online backup using the built-in TPC Backup Utility which uses the API to send data to a TSM server
C. offline backup of TPC to TSM without pausing any servers to archive the current state of the TPC
Server
D. offline backup of TPC to TSM with stopping the data, the device servers, and the DB2 database prior to
copying the files
Answer: D

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NO.14 Profiles enable which two capabilities when used in a scan? (Choose two.)
A. ability to gather statistics
B. ability to control which files are scanned
C. ability to control which hosts are scanned
D. ability to control which fabrics are scanned
E. ability to control which disk storage subsystems are scanned
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 A customer has IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 (TPC) installed on Windows 2003 with 8GB
of RAM running IBM DB2 V9.5 Fixpack 5 with 10 Data Agents and 5 Fabric Agents. The customer wants
to utilize the Configure Device Wizard on the newest TPC V4.2 code. Which solution will retain their
current configuration and minimize additional setup time?
A. fresh install of DB2
B. upgrade to TPC V4.2
C. upgrade to TPC V4.2 and migrate Data and Fabric Agents
D. fresh install of TPC V4.2 and deploy Storage Resource Agents
Answer: C

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NO.16 How can the storage subsystem's performance be viewed?
A. Data Manager > Reporting > Storage Subsystem Performance
B. Disk Manager > Reporting > Storage Subsystems > Volume to HBA Assignment
C. Topology > Storage, click Topology Settings and add Performance on the Active Overlay settings
D. Topology > Fabrics, click Topology Settings and add Expand All Sections on the Active Overlay
settings
Answer: C

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NO.17 A client wants to migrate 100 data and fabric agents into Storage Resource Agents (SRA). In addition to
command line and installation wizard, what other method can be used for the migration?
A. Administrative Services > Configuration > SRA Upgrades
B. Administrative Services > Configuration > SRA Deployments
C. Administrative Services > Configuration > Migrate Data/Fabric Agent
D. Administrative Services > Data Sources > Data/SRA > Migrate Data/Fabric Agent
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the full default path for finding log files that give information about the success or failure of the
IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) installation on a 32-bit Windows server.?
A. C:\Program Files\TPC\log
B. C:\Program Files\IBM\data\log
C. C:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\log
D. C:\Program Files\IBM\device\log
Answer: C

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NO.19 Given a malfunctioning IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) installation at a customer
site after a network topology reconfiguration, what is the full path to check the TPC configuration files?
A. c:\Program Files\IBM
B. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC
C. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\config
D. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\server\config
Answer: C

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NO.20 In provisioning a new storage subsystem, an administrator inadvertently violated a zoning-related
policy. If the zoning-related configuration changes persist in the database, which IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V4.2 analytics function can be used to detect this policy violation?
A. Storage Optimizer
B. Analytics Validation
C. SAN Policy Manager
D. Configuration Analysis
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-Z05

Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z and z/OS Fundamentals Mastery)

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NO.1 Which of the following describes the z/OS Communications Storage Manager (CSM)?
A.Communications Server disk storage
B.Layered network model storage
C.RFC common storage standard
D.Shared I/O buffer for data flow
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is true of Type 4 JDBC drivers?
A.Fully written in java, can be ported to any platform that supports DBMS protocol.
B.JDBC API calls platform and database specific code to access the database.
C.JDBC default driver for z/OS
D.Offers the best performance
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility?
A.CTC ring
B.Shared DASD
C.Parallel Sysplex
D.zAAP
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following enables network devices to communicate with SNA applications in the z/OS
environment?
A.BTAM
B.VSAM
C.VTAM
D.BDAM
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL).Which of the following accurately
describes a function of one of these specialty processors?
A.zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.
B.IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM
C.zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first
D.SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following z/OS UNIX files determines the behavior of a z/OS HTTP Server request passed
to a plug-in?
A.plugin-cfg.xml
B.plugin-cfg xml
C.polugin.conf
D.profile
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following can identify a base software component?
A.Message format
B.Software update list
C.System log routing table descriptor
D.Three characters in message identifier
Answer: D

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NO.8 SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are considered what type of
z/OS-specific HTTP functions?
A.File Caching
B.Security
C.Add-on
D.Basic
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON channels?
A.ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower
B.ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre connections
C.ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels
D.FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels
Answer: D

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NO.10 What master catalog entry relates to the name of a user catalog?
A.HLQ
B.VVDS
C.ALIAS
D.Alternate index
Answer:C

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