2013年6月30日星期日

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Exam Code: 642-416

Exam Name: Cisco (Unified Communications Architecture and Design Exam)

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NO.1 Cisco Unified Communications servers are supported on the Cisco Unified Computing System platform
using which LAN connection? (Choose one.)
A. Fast Ethernet -- Copper
B. Gigabit Ethernet -- Copper
C. Gigabit Ethernet -- Fiber
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet -- Copper
E. 10 Gigabit Ethernet -- Fiber
Answer: E

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NO.2 Cisco Unified Communications servers are supported on the Cisco Unified Computing System platform
using which storage solution? (Choose one.)
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. internal hard drive
D. external hard drive
Answer: B

Cisco   642-416   642-416

NO.3 Which two rich-media Cisco Unified IP Phone series are supported in Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Version 8.x.? (Choose two.)
A. VIP
B. 9700
C. 6900
D. 7900
E. 9900
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Cisco Unity Connection provides which three benefits for retrieving messages? (Choose three.)
A. web access to voice messages, faxes, and email
B. RSS access to voice messages, faxes, and email
C. SNMP access to voice messages, faxes, and email
D. mobile access to voice messages, faxes, and email
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Cisco Unity provides which two benefits for retrieving messages? (Choose two.)
A. web access to voice messages, faxes, and email
B. RSS access to voice messages, faxes, and email
C. SNMP access to voice messages, faxes, and email
D. mobile access to voice messages, faxes, and email
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager features are new in Version 8.x? (Choose three.)
A. BLF Speed Dial
B. Geolocation
C. Phone View
D. Extension Mobility Cross Cluster
E. Trust Verification Service
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Which two messaging products are based on a Linux operating system? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Call Pilot
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Cisco Unified Communications servers are supported on the Cisco Unified Computing System platform
using which two disk drive rpm speeds? (Choose two.)
A. 5,400
B. 7,200
C. 10,000
D. 15,000
E. 14,400
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Business Edition integrates the Cisco Unity Connection
voice-mail system on a single platform. Which solution can be used for call processing backup? (Choose
one.)
A. Backup and Restore
B. SRST
C. subscriber server
D. DRS server
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which messaging product is associated with Unified Messaging? (Choose one.)
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Call Pilot
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 650-754

Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced IP NGN Architecture System Engineer )

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NO.1 What are the two primary access technologies that are used for residential customers? (Choose two.)
A. Metro Ethernet
B. 3G and 4G mobile access
C. Cable
D. xDSL
E. WiMax
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which three statements are true about DHCPv6? (Choose three.)
A. DHCPv6 is used to automate the process of assigning the prefixes to the customer network.
B. DHCPv6 is used to automate the process of assigning the prefixes to the ISP core network.
C. Prefix delegation happens between a P and CP
D. Prefix delegation happens between a PE and CP
E. The customer can customize the subnet and assign the prefixes to the link.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 Which two protocols that can establish secure tunnels are supported over PPPoE dialer interface?
(Choose two)
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. GRE
D. IPS
E. NAC
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Identify the two advantages that the Cisco IP NGN framework provides. (Choose two.)
A. various services over a common infrastructure
B. narrowband access with a limited number of services
C. mobile access to services
D. no QoS mechanism required for end customer traffic
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What is a key value of the Cisco IP NGN architecture?
A. instability
B. robustness
C. safety
D. scalability
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the two main advantages of IP NGN networks for service providers? (Choose two.)
A. simplified management of one converged network, as opposed to multiple management systems for
multiple networks
B. diversification of network infrastructure, where every service is provided over independent and
separately managed networks
C. reduced expenditures
D. reduced flexibility
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Match each term on the left to its explanation on the right.
Answer:

NO.8 Which management platform is used for managing the experience lifecycle in Cisco product offering.?
A. Cisco Prime NCS
B. Cisco Works LMS version 4.0
C. Cisco Secure Manager
D. Cisco SDM
Answer: B

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NO.9 DRAG DROP
Match the terms on the left to the explanations on the right.
Answer: ROI 4 TCO 2 CapEx 1 OpEx 3

NO.10 DRAG DROP
Match the routers by their forwarding performance. (1 is the lowest and 5 is the highest.)
Answer:

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Exam Code: 644-906

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing and Maintaining Cisco Technologies Using IOS XR )

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NO.1 The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance
behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance
behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?
A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.
B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.
C. The modular services card (MSC) could not be exchanged if one failed.
D. The fan tray could not be exchanged if one failed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How many planes are there in the Cisco CRS-3 switch fabric?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
If you have ROMMONs and FPDs with the Upg/Dng field marked "Yes" and you ran the upgrade
hw-module fpd all location all command, what did you upgrade?
A. upgraded only the FPD for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked "Yes"
B. upgraded all of the FPDs on all cards with an FPD regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings C.
upgraded only the FPD and ROMMON for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked "Yes"
D. upgraded all of the FPDs and ROMMONs on all cards with an FPD or ROMMON regardless of the
Upg/Dng field markings
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which mode can you check the power usage of a chassis?
A. in EXEC mode
B. in admin mode
C. in both EXEC and admin mode
D. in ROMMON mode
E. in environmental mode
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the cell size of the cells that traverse the switch fabric on the Cisco CRS-3?
A. 128 bytes
B. 136 bytes
C. 144 bytes
D. 200 bytes
E. 288 bytes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit.
How much power is the system currently using?
A. 663 W
B. 1150 W
C. 1850 W
D. 6000 W
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where are client interfaces terminated on the Cisco CRS-3?
A. the modular services card
B. the physical layer interface module(s)
C. the switch fabric interface terminator
D. the Service Processor 40
E. the Service Processor 140
Answer: B

Cisco   644-906   644-906

NO.8 Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit.
How many additional line cards of the same type that are currently in the system can you safely install and
remain redundant in the worse power usage if there is a power supply failure.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the maximum long-term normal operating temperature of the Cisco CRS-1, ASR 9000 Series
Routers, and XR 12000 Series Routers?
A. 40C (104F)
B. 50C (122F)
C. 55C (131F)
D. 65C (149F)
Answer: A

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NO.10 In order to determine the hardware and firmware revision of a linecard, what is the correct command
that should be invoked?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show version
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show platform
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show platform
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show diagnostic summary
E. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show diag details
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 648-385

Exam Name: Cisco (CXFF-Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers)

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NO.1 An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send
audio.
What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access
point.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 After configuring VTP , you no longer receive updates as expected. Which command can you
use
to verify the number of VTP advertisements being transmitted?
A. show vtp database
B. show vtp counters
C. show vtp statistics
D. show vtp status
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access
points
when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a
Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco
Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or
controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the major difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS?
A. TACACS+ runs in TCP ,RADIUS operates in UDP
B. TACACS+ runs in UDP ,RADIUS operates in TCP
C. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the access-request packet that is sent from the client to the
server,TACACS+ encrypts only the password in the access-request packet
D. TACACS+ and RADIUS operate on two different protocol layers
Answer: A

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NO.7 In which of these phases is a customer's current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted
interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must
you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface,then reconfigure the access list as
required,and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which
two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The ip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip httpsecure servercommand is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside
(secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 What does understanding the radiation patterns of different antennas types help you to
determine
when providing wireless coverage in an office building?
A. the exact number of access points that are needed
B. the type of antenna to cover a specific area
C. the size of an area that will be covered
D. the location of the access points
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 642-996

Exam Name: Cisco (Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric)

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NO.1 Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. CIFS
B. AoE
C. NFSv4
D. iSCSI
E. FCoE
F. HyperTransport
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is one example of typical business requirements that are driving the design of installed
base
data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. physical space
C. greater collaboration
D. visualization
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which innovation in the Cisco NX-OS Software new Layer 2 data plane by encapsulating the
frames entering the device with a header that consists of a mutable source and destination
address?
A. LISP
B. MPLS
C. RSTP
D. OTV
E. Routing
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate platforms
are
capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade
B. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?
A. Cisco Adapter FEX is only supported on vSwitch.
B. Cisco Adapter FEX does not provide architectural flexibility.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX increases the number of cables in the data center.
D. Cisco Adapter FEX enables the server adapter to be logically partitioned into multiple vNICs.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which statement best describes the Cisco collaboration architecture?
A.It is a collaboration framework designed to integrate the existing collaboration functionalities of a
customer with Cisco network infrastructure.
B.It is a collaboration framework designed to support the collaboration needs of a typical large
enterprise.
C.It is a flexible collaboration framework designed to support any customer and any user
collaboration
needs.
D.It is a flexible network framework designed to enable integration with the collaboration
requirements of
a customer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where in the value chain do collaboration architecture solutions bring the highest value to
businesses?
A.In human resources management processes
B.Infrastructure
C.In logistics processes
D.Within core business processes
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three of these are market trends that drive the need for an improved, more efficient
collaboration
experience? (Choose three.)
A.automated order processing
B.conducting business globally across several or all time zones
C.effective HRM system
D.work anywhere, anytime, any device
E.inventory management
F.cloud services and social media
Answer: B,D,F

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Exam Code: 156-315

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX II (156-315.1)......)

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NO.1 Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of
available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queuing
E. Low Latency Queing
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other object should you
have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed.
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed.
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Exhibit:
KillTest tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. KillTest sees
the screen displayed in the exhibit.
What is the problem?
A. Jack must enable directional_match(true) in the object_5_0.c file on SmartCenter server.
B. Jack must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties.
D. Jack must enable a dynamic-routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways.
E. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object's VPN tab.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315   156-315   156-315

NO.4 You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at
Version VPN-1 NG with application Intelligence R55.
You must upgrade two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Perform an advanced upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN.1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate
Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315 questions   156-315

NO.6 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55
Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.
Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VNP-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlatform NGX R60
D. SVN Founation
E. VPN-1 Pro/Express NGX R60
Answer: C

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NO.7 KillTest is the Security Administrator for KillTest .com. KillTest .com FTP
servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP
servers to malfunction. Upgrading the FTP Servers is not an option this time.
Which of the following options will allow KillTest to control which FTP
commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. Global Properties->Security Server ->Security Server->Allowed FTP Commands
B. SmartDefense->Application Intelligence->FTP Security Server
C. Rule Base->Action Field->Properties
D. Web Intelligence->Application Layer->FTP Settings
E. FTP Service Object->Advanced->Blocked FTP Commands
Answer: B

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NO.8 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You set up a mesh VPN community, so your internal networks can access your
partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and
partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http,
with the Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule
in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service with the Community object in the VPN
field.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315 demo

NO.10 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.
Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2
exchange occurs?
A. Phase 3 Key Revocation
B. Perfect Forward Secrecy
C. MD5 Hash Completion
D. SH1 Hash Completion
E. DES Key Reset
Answer: B

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NO.11 Exhibit:
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster,
you plan to use three machines with the configurations displayed in the exhibit.
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
B. No, QuadCards are not supported with ClusterXL.
C. No, all machines in a cluster must be running on the same OS.
D. No, al cluster must have an even number of machines.
E. No, ClusterXL is not supported on Red Hat Linux.
Answer: C

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NO.12 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

CheckPoint test answers   156-315   156-315   156-315

NO.13 Which operating system is NOT supported by VPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPSO 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 8.0
E. MacOS X
Answer: A

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NO.14 You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to
one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify
the connection is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Where can a Security Administator adjust the unit of measurement (bps, Kbps or
Bps), for Check Point QoS bandwidth?
A. Global Properties
B. QoS Class objects
C. Check Point gateway object properties
D. $CPDIR/conf/qos_props.pf
E. Advanced Action options in each QoS rule.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323
protocols, passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP
Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

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NO.18 Exhibit:
The exhibit displays the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, since its number is 2.
B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1.
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
D. 192.168.1.2, because its stats is active
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315 test answers   156-315

NO.19 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the
traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities,
including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internal_clear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internal_clear>External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>Communities
E. Internal_clear>All_communities
Answer: E

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NO.20 KillTest is concerned that a denial-of-service (DoS) attack may affect her VPN
Communities. She decides to implement IKE DoS protection. Jack needs to
minimize the performance impact of implementing this new protectdion.
Which of the following configurations is MOST appropriate for Mrs. Bill?
A. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Puzzles", and Support IKE
DoS protection from unidentified source to "Stateless"
B. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and Support IKE DoS
protection from unidentified soruce to "Puzzles"
C. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles".
D. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and "Support IKE DoS
protection" from unidentified source to "Stateless".
E. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "None".
Answer: D

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NO.1 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.2 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

CheckPoint test questions   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.3 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.6 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.8 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.11 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.12 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.17 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

CheckPoint practice test   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.20 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-215.75

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator)

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NO.1 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.5 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces, then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.9 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

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NO.10 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model? Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.75   156-215.75

NO.12 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing components.)
Answer: B

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NO.13 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.14 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.15 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.16 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.17 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.18 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> < IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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