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Exam Code: C2150-006
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: P2090-050
Exam Name: IBM PureData System for Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A4120-784
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1
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NO.1 A client wants a PureFlex Express configuration with an additional EN4093R 10Gb Scalable
Switch module for redundancy. The Power nodes in the configuration have four-port 10Gb NICs and
the client applications planned for the Power nodes will require the use of all four of those ports.
What must the technical expert include in the configuration to meet this requirement?
A. An additional pair of EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch modules
B. IBM Flex System CN4054 Virtual Fabric Adapter Upgrade for each CN4054 adapter
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1) for each switch
D. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2) for each switch
Answer: C

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NO.2 A client has purchased a Flex System with a Flex System Manager (FSM) and a p260 node.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective procedure to install the VIO server?
A. Engage Lab Services to complete the installation
B. Use the external USB DVD RAM that IBM delivers with a Flex System
C. Copy the VIO ISO images onto the FSM and use the installios command
D. Launch the Remote Control from the FSM and remote mount the VIO ISO images from your
workstation
Answer: C

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NO.3 A client has a number of Power servers that are virtualized and boot from FC SAN with dual
VIO servers. The client is considering consolidation of server and network hardware (LAN and SAN)
while maximizing the return on investment by leveraging existing shared FC storage. Which option
meets the client requirements?
A. Utilize FCoE to boot the VIO servers
B. Utilize iSCSI to boot the VIO servers
C. Continue to use FC SAN for the VIO servers
D. Use a pair of internal drives to provide for the VIO servers
Answer: A

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NO.4 The client seeks to reduce cost and complexity in a highly virtualized x86 environment. They
want the network policies to migrate automatically along with mobile virtual machines to ensure
that security, performance and access remains intact as virtual machines move from server to server.
VMware is their virtualization standard. Which option will provide a complete solution?
A. Switches capable to support 802.1 QBG
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V on IBM VMready Switches
C. IBM Switch-resident IBM VMready capability
D. IBM Software Defined Networking (SDN) for Virtual
Answer: D

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NO.5 The IBM Flex System Interoperability Guide is a handy reference document but its
information is only as accurate as of its most recent publication date. Where would the technical
expert find the latest complete information on supported FCoE configurations?
A. The FC-BB-5 standards documentation
B. IBM Flex System product development
C. Reference IBM's ServerProven web page
D. IBM System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC)
Answer: D

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NO.6 A client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage
Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?
A. FSM
B. BIOS upgrade
C. Chassis Manager
D. Flex Node Interface GUI
Answer: A

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NO.7 A client has a need for a Linux based solution that requires a large amount of memory. The
application runs on either x86 or Power nodes. Which of the following nodes would provide the
maximum memory configuration?
A. p460
B. x440
C. p24L
D. x240
Answer: B

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NO.8 On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is
inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is
operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to
the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full
system recovery
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM XIV Storage System Technical Solutions V4
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Exam Code: P2040-052
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud for Social Business Technical Mastery Test v4
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Exam Code: C2010-502
Exam Name: IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation
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NO.1 When creating a Samsung SAFE Capability Profile what are two of the system security'
restrictions that can be set for SAFE compatible mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. disable Bluetooth
B. disable the microphone
C. enable encryption of internal storage
D. enable encryption of external storage
E. define the required maximum password length
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
needs to view a list of applications installed on a particular OS device. Where can this be done?
A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Management Extender for iOS devices opens a Command Port to listen for commands
received from the IBM Endpoint Manager server. What is the default port value?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 52311
D. 52315
Answer: D

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NO.4 An Android device cannot be enrolled with a message similar to: Received an invalid server
URL. What should be checked by the IBM Endpoint Manager administrator to identity the problem?
A. confirm the Trusted Service Provider is up and running
B. make sure the provided server name points to the enrollment server
C. make sure the provided URL points to the Trusted Service Provider URL
D. check if the maximum number of device has been reached for the enrollment server
Answer: B

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NO.5 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2010-598
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Exam Code: A2180-315
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Message Broker v6.1, Solution Development
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NO.1 A Message Broker V6.1 developer needs to work with a multipart message that exploits the MIME
standard. Which two mechanisms can be used to parse the content of the MIME parts?
A.Extract node
B.Validate node
C.ASBITSTREAM function
D.ResetContentDescriptor node
E.ESQL to parse the individual parts
Answer: D E

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NO.2 A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow to route
SOAP/HTTP-based Web service requests to the appropriate provider without access to the WSDL of the
providers. Which set of built-in nodes is the most appropriate for implementing this message flow?
A.An HTTPInput node, a Route node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
B.A SOAPInput node, an EndpointLookup node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply node.
C.A SOAPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply node.
D.An HTTPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Message Broker V6.1 developer receives a request to authenticate and authorize Web service
requests to a message flow with username and password provided as WS-Security username tokens
against a Microsoft Active Directory. Which action must be performed by the developer to fulfill this
request?
A.Set the Use HTTPS property of the SOAPInput node.
B.Add a username token in the WS-Security table of the SOAPInput node.
C.Add a username and a password as user-defined SOAP headers of the SOAPInput node.
D.Nothing, the Message Broker administrator that deploys the message associates the right security
profile.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A message flow has been developed to receive a record with an MQInput node and store it by
appending it to a local file using the FileOutput node. When the message flow is tested by sending five
test messages, only the record from the last message gets stored in the local file. What is the most
probable cause of this behavior?
A.The file already exists in the mqsitransit directory.
B.The FileOutput node does not support appending data to an existing file.
C.The developer did not connect the Finish File terminal of the FileOutput node.
D.The Record definition property of the FileOutput node is set to "Record is Whole File".
Answer: D

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NO.5 The message flow shown in the Exhibit has been deployed to broker ROUTE_BRKR.
The broker's queue manager does not have a Dead Letter Queue nor a Backout Requeue Queue defined.
Error messages are being written to the local error log reporting there has been a problem with writing
failing persistent messages to queue CATCH.Q used by the CATCH Q node. The
MQMD.BACKOUTCOUNT equals 11 and the Backout threshold equals 5.
In which location should the developer find the failing message?
A.SYSTEM.DEAD.LETTER.QUEUE
B.The queue defined by the FAIL Q node
C.The queue defined by the INPUT Q node
D.In no location, the message is discarded
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which component is the contract that describes to the Message Broker V6.1 developer how to build a
Web service request?
A.WSDL
B.Namespace
C.HTTP Header
D.SOAP Envelope
Answer: A

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NO.7 A developer who is very familiar with writing XPath expressions in the mapping editor has been asked
to convert several of the company's current message flows. The message flows use mappings to do
message transformation to message flows which use Java to do transformations. Which method call
should be used to help the developer more quickly write code to access messages?
A.callXPath
B.processXPath
C.mappingXPath
D.evaluateXPath
Answer: D

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NO.8 There is a requirement to integrate Message Broker V6.1 with a messaging system that conforms to
Java Message Service Specification V1.1. Which messaging transport should be used for integration
purposes?
A.MQ Mobile
B.Broker JMS
C.We Services
D.MQ Enterprise
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2110-670
Exam Name: IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which statement about SMS table spaces is correct?
A. The system catalog cannot be stored in an SMS table space.
B. Tables, large objects (LOBs), and indexes can each reside in separate SMS table spaces.
C. SMS table spaces are recommended when you have small tables that are not likely to grow
quickly.
D. Extents are more likely to be contiguous with SMS table spaces than they are with DMS table
spaces.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following query is executed frequently against the SALES table: SELECT sales_id,
sales_date, sales_person FROM sales; If data in the SALES_ID column is unique, which
statement will create an index for optimal query performance and ensure uniqueness of the
SALES_ID column?
A. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
C. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
Answer: D

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NO.3 On which two operating systems can DB2 pureScale run? (Choose two.)
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. Solaris
E. Windows
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 If the following statements are executed: CREATE STOGROUP sg_hot ON '/path1', '/path2',
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tbsp1 USING STOGROUP sg_hot; What is the recommended way to move table space TBSP1
from storage group SG_HOT to storage group SG_MED?
A. Issue an ALTER TABLESPACE statement with the 'USING sg_med' option.
B. Issue an ALTER STOGROUP statement with the 'MOVE tbsp1 TO sg_med' option.
C. Perform a table space RESTORE operation with the 'USING STOGROUP sg_hot' option.
D. Use the ADMIN_MOVE_TABLESPACE procedure to move table space TBSP1 to SG_HOT.
Answer: A

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NO.5 If the following commands complete successfully for a single partition database: CREATE
DATABASE mydb; CREATE BUFFERPOOL mybp; Which statement is true?
A. Self tuning is enabled for the MYBP buffer pool.
B. The initial size for the MYBP buffer pool is zero pages.
C. The database has to be restarted before the MYBP buffer pool will become active.
D. The page size for the MYBP buffer pool can be changed using the ALTER BUFFERPOOL
statement.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A DB2 9 database named MYDB that does not use automatic storage was migrated to DB2
10.1.
When will a default storage group be defined for this database?
A. The first time the database is accessed after the migration.
B. The first time the CREATE STOGROUP statement is executed.
C. When the ALTER DATABASE mydb CONVERT statement is used to convert the database to
an automatic storage database.
D. When the ALTER TABLESPACE statement is used to convert the table space that holds the
system catalog for the database to automatic storage.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jane is designing a form with three pages. Pages one and two are built with a wizard style
interface, and page three is meant only for printing. How can Jane setup her form so that when
the form is printed, only page three prints?
A. Jane should only put a print button on page three, then it will be the only one that shows up
when the form is printed.
B. Jane must break up her form into two separate forms: one for the wizard and one for printing.
C. Jane can set theprint settingsproperty of page three to 'on', andprint settingsproperty for pages
one and two to 'off'.
D. Jane would create a "keep" filter, specifying page three as the only page to print.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.1 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 David has added a Name Picker control to his XPages bound to an Edit Box control. He needs
to allow the users to select multiple names. Assuming type-ahead is not enabled, how would he do
that?
A. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Client separators box
(multipleSeparator property).
B. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Suggestions separators box
(valueListSeparator property).
C. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a multi-value
separator to the multipleSeparatorproperty.
D. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a
multi-value separator to the valueListSeparatorproperty.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Mary wants to debug the uncompressed version of the xspClientDojo.js. Which action can she
perform in order to do this?
A. Set the "Use Dojo layer libraries" option in the XSP Properties editor.
B. Set the "Use runtime optimized JavaScript and Dojo" option in the XSP Properties editor.
C. Set the "Use uncompressed resource files (CSS & Dojo)" option in the XSP Properties editor.
D. Uncompress the xspClientDojo.js file manually and upload it to IBM Domino Desginer via a JS
Library.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Ellie wants to add an icon as the first column on her Data View. How can she achieve this?
A. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the details facet.
B. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the iconColumn property.
C. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the extraColumns property.
D. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the summaryColumn property.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Olivia is adding a Send Mail simple action to her XPages application. Which two types of
formats are available for the body field of the email? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. MIME
C. HTML
D. Rich text
E. Plain text
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

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NO.1 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.3 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.6 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.7 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?
A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.
B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
C. Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.
D. If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo segments to
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Exam Code: JN0-740
Exam Name: ACX, Specialist (JNCIS-ACX)
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Exam Name: Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos)
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NO.1 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A. 11001111
B. 11101011
C. 11010111
D. 11010101
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command is used to display all output at once?
A. show interfaces | all
B. show interfaces | no-more
C. show interfaces | hold
D. show interfaces | display-all
Answer: B

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NO.3 What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100101?
A. 5
B. 93
C. 177
D. 229
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have been allocated a 192.168.100.0/ 22 network.
How many usable hosts are available?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 1024
Answer: C

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NO.5 A network administrator wants to verify the active alarms on interface so-0/ 0/ 0.0.
Which command displays this information?
A. show interfaces alarms
B. show interfaces terse
C. show alarms extensive
D. show interfaces extensive
Answer: D

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NO.6 A packet is evaluated against three user-defined terms within a firewall filter and no match is
found.
What correctly describes the action the firewall filter will take for this packet?
A. The filter will permit the packet and take no additional action.
B. The filter will reject the packet and send an ICMP message back to the sender.
C. The filter will discard the packet and take no additional action.
D. The filter will permit the packet and write a log entry to the firewall log.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which J-Web tab do you use to add licenses to the device?
A. "Configure"
B. "Troubleshoot"
C. "Monitor"
D. "Maintain"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command is used to enable access to J-Web using HTTPS?
A. set system remote-access profile https
B. set services remote-access profile j-web-https
C. set system services web-management https
D. set services web-management j-web-https
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal
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NO.1 Which of these services does SmartCloud Connections contain?
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B. SmartCloud Activities and SmartCloud Notes
C. SmartCloud Communities and SmartCloud Files
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 which of the following is a list of supported document types that can be edited using
SmartCloud Docs Documents?
A. .odt, .ott, .doc, .docx, .dot, .dotx, and .txt
B. .odt, .ott, .rtf, and .txt
C. .odt, .ott, .doc, .docx, .dot, .dotx, .rtf and .txt
D. .doc, .docx, .dot, .dotx, .rtf, and .txt
Answer: A

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NO.3 Sarah's SmartCloud for Social Business account was enabled with Skype?integration by her
Administrator. What is a requirement to access this SmartCloud for Social Business Integrated
Application?
A. The Skype?client is required.
B. The SkypeOut setting must be enabled within SmartCloud for Social Business for calling other
Skype?users.
C. This is an integrated application; therefore, the Skype?client is not required.
D. Her Administrator must also enable VoIP to connect with SmartCloud for Social Business contacts.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Taylor, a paid subscriber to SmartCloud Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a
customer who does not have an account. How would Taylor invite his customer to join?
A. Taylor's customer could not participate in the meeting since the customer is a guest. Taylor could
record the meeting and send a link to thevideo recording.
B. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID and when the customer clicked the
URL link, the customer would be prompted toregister. Once the customer has registered, they can
participate in the meeting.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask his customer to visit the
SmartCloud for Social Business website to enterthe meeting ID and their name in order to join.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for a guest to be registered. Once registration is
complete, the customer can join the meeting byvisiting the SmartCloud for Social Business website,
authenticating with their credentials and entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of these services does SmartCloud Engage Standard contain?
A. SmartCloud Meetings and SmartCloud Notes
B. SmartCloud Meetings and SmartCloud Activities
C. SmartCloud iNotes and SmartCloud Communities
D. SmartCloud iNotes and SmartCloud Meetings
Answer: B

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NO.6 Carl wants to host a SmartCloud Meeting. Which option is NOT available to Carl from the
Meeting dashboard?
A. Record the Meeting
B. Set a password for the Meeting
C. Get Mobile Meetings
D. Host a Meeting
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered
base
table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement describes administrative privileges?
A. Provides audit functionality for the database.
B. Manages resource allocations for concurrent processing.
C. Gives permission to execute global operations and to create objects.
D. Gives additional storage to select members of the administrator group.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is required to troubleshoot a query?
A. nzevents and the pg.log.
B. nzsql and the ODBC config.
C. nzinventory and the dbos.log.
D. nzdumpschema and the execution plan.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which will result in support for zonemaps on the LastName column?
A. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20));
B. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20));
ALTER TABLE TableA ZONEMAP ON (LastName);
C. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20)) DISTRIBUTE ON (LastName);
D. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20));
CREATE MATERIALIZED VIEW ViewA AS SELECT * FROM TableA ORDER BY LastName;
Answer: D

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NO.6 OLE-DB based applications on UNIX requires which PureData System for Analytics software?
A. Install the JDBC driver for UNIX.
B. Install the ODBC driver for UNIX.
C. Install the OLE-DB driver for UNIX.
D. OLE-DB is not supported on UNIX.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2010-501
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Infrastructure Implementation
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Exam Code: C2180-400
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Operational Decision Management V8.0 Application Development
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NO.1 Regarding the Run Configuration Step screen - which option requires running taskrunner.bat?
A. configure SMTP host
B. deploy application files manually later
C. defer the update of the Maximo database
D. copy files now, perform the configuration step later
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the recommended method to build a Maximo EAR file?
A. runthebuiidear.bat from a command prompt
B. runthebuiidmaximoear.cmd from a command prompt
C. double-click on buiidear.bat from the IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment directory
D. right-click on buildmaximoear.cmd from the IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment\default directory
and run as administrator
Answer: B

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NO.3 Users can create and save their own queries and can share queries with other users. What
should be done in order to reduce the likelihood of queries negatively impacting performance?
A. create efficient default queries
B. periodically truncate the default query table
C. add an Order By clause to inefficient queries
D. remove the text search index on columns called by the query
Answer: A

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NO.4 When enabling Application Server Security in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5,which
property value must be set?
A. mxe.encrypted=true
B. mxe.encrypted=false
C. mxe.useAppServerSecurity=1
D. mxe.useAppServerSecurity=0
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the correct product install order for IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo)?
A. latest Maximo fix pack, any industry solution, latest fix pack interim fix
B. latest Maximo fix pack, any industry solution, interim fix for earlier fix pack
C. latest Maximo fix pack interim fix,any industry solution, latest Maximo fix pack
D. latest Maximo fix pack interim fix, latest Maximo fix pack, any industry solution
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which design principles should be followed when application clustering is intended to address
fault tolerance in the environment to some level for user interface (UI) session handling?
A. The High Availability (HA) management design should include vertical and horizontal clustering.
The UIsystems should be vertically clustered. The other Java Virtual Machines (JVMs) should be
horizontally clustered.
B. The HA management design should include horizontal clustering with a minimum of 2 systems
and half the total number of UIJVM on each system.
C. The HA management design should have the number of JVMs needed to support the load of the
system from a UIperspective as double what is required and be vertically clustered.
D. The HA management design should have the number of JVMs needed to support the load of the
system from a UIperspective and be able to support the UIload with a single JVM removed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which system property is used to log SQL statement execution time?
A. mxe.db.SQLRunTirne
B. mxe.db.fetchResultTime
C. mxe.db.logSQLTimeLimit
D. rnxe.db.fetchResultLogLirnit
Answer: C

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NO.8 The configuration of the IBM Maximo Asset Management v7.5 application server security
requires which two files to be configured? (Choose two.)
A. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\META-INF\application.xml
B. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\META-INF\deployment-application.xml
C. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\mboweb\webmodule\WEB-INF\web.xml
D. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\mboejb\ejbmodule\META-INF\ejb-jar.xml
E. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\maximouiweb\webmodule\WEB-INF\web.xml
Answer: C,E

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