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Exam Code: P2090-080
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Exam Code: C4120-783
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NO.1 What option of the InfoSphere Warehouse Administration Console'sSQL Warehousing menu is
used to immediately execute a deployed application?
A. Manage Control Flows ? Select a Control Flow ? Click Start Icon
B. Manage Applications ? Select an Application ? Click Start icon
C. Manage Instances ? Select an Instance ? Click Start Icon
D. Manage Applications ? Select an Instance ? Click Start icon
Answer: A

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NO.2 When preserving a mining model rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?When preserving amining model? rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?
A. An annotator
B. A visualizer
C. An introspector
D. There is no function to do this.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following data flow palette operators DOES NOT have the capability of creating a
persistent DB2 table?
A. File Export
B. Table Target
C. Data Station
D. Bulk Load Target
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is NOT a target audience for an InfoSphere Warehouse opportunity?
A. New SAP implementation
B. Existing DB2 9 customers
C. Small and mid-sized businesses looking for their first Data Warehouse
D. Companies looking for a complete reporting solution that helps to create, manage, and deliver
reports
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about IBM Smart Analytics System modules is FALSE?
A. An IBM Smart Analytics System is limited to a maximumof 12 modules, so users must carefully
choose which modules to include.
B. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to support system scalability and can be added
to the Smart Analytics System as needed to meet specific customer requirements.
C. IBMSmart Analytics System modules are designed to integrate with other modules in the system
to provide optimized performance to business analytics solutions.
D. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to have different roles, such as modules for
BI,modules for warehouse data, modules for high availability failover, etc.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the difference between the IBM Smart Analytics System 5600 and the 5600S?
A. The 5600S has two extra SAN Storage Switches
B. The 5600S is the only one that comes with a System x Server
C. The 5600S uses SSD Storage Devices
D. The 5600S comes with Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Workload Management component of InfoSphere Warehouse 9.7 provides
_________________.
A. control of individual database activities
B. control of concurrency of database activities
C. fine grained, light weight monitoring of database activities
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 A cube has been designed in Design Studio. What step(s) is(are) required to make it available
to an existing cube server?
A. Deploy metadata to the database
B. Add the cube to thecube server
C. Start the cube server and cube
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2120-800
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Exam Code: A2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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NO.1 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Information Analyzer v9.1
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Exam Code: C2010-505
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5.1 IT Asset Management Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-515
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Application Performance Management V7.7 Fundamentals
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NO.1 If there is a need to run data rules on a daily basis, which two options are valid?
A. Create a bundle and run lAJob command
B. Schedule lAJob runs using DataStage Director
C. Run lAJob command pointing to data rule executable
D. Run lABundle command pointing to all rules to be executed
E. Submit lAJob command on a daily basis from Information Server Operation console
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You have been tasked with documenting all fields that contain personal information while
performing profiling activities.
Which method would you use to accomplish this?
A. Select the 'Personal' status on the Domain & Completeness workspace.
B. Update the 'Priority' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
C. Update the 'Personal' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
D. Select the data class or sub-class indicating the type of information for each field containing
personal information.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two characteristics of data rules?
A. Each data rule has a defined status.
B. Data rules only produce exception data.
C. Data rule definitions are explicit to one data source.
D. You cannot transfer data rules to another environment.
E. Data rules can be tested interactively during data rule creation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 You are configuring security for a user who will be testing Information Analyzer rules on an ad
hoc basis.
What steps are necessary to ensure the user can test the rules?
A. Enable the Suite User and Information Analyzer Rules Author roles in the Information Server web
console on the Administration tab.
B. Enable the Rules User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace.
C. Enable the Rule User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Rules Operator role in the Information Analyzer console in the Home Analysis Settings workspace
.
D. Enable the Suite User and Rules Administrator role in the Information Analyzer web console on the
Administration tab. Add the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project
Properties workspace.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are working with a System Administrator who must move an Information Analyzer project
to a new Information Server environment using the command line tools. You need to ensure that the
project is established with the same metadata and reports as in the original environment.
Which parameter must be included to successfully complete the export?
A. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeCommonReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
B. -includeAssignedAssets; -includeProjectReports; -includeAIIDataSources
C. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
D. -includeProjectMetadata; -includelAReports; -includeDependentClasses
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two steps are necessary to set up data rule monitoring?
A. Create Metric.
B. Create Data Rule Definition.
C. Create Data Source connection.
D. Create batch script to run data rule.
E. Create and configure dashboard environment to see run results.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which can be done in the Data Rule Stage?
A. Create a metric
B. Unpublish a rule
C. Delete a published rule
D. Create an unpublished rule
Answer: C

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NO.8 A new business group, working in a separate and distinct Information Analyzer environment, is
starting to assess their data quality, but wishes to reuse existing data quality validation to jumpstart
their effort.
Which method supports delivering the data rule definitions to this new environment?
A. Open InfoSphere Metadata Asset Manager; go to Home>Metadata Management>Data Quality,
select the desired Data Rule Definitions, click the Export task, and then provide the output file name.
Repeat the process in the new environment but click the Import option and select the output file
name.
B. Open InfoSphere Metadata Workbench; go to the Find tab; open drop down list and select Data
Rule Definition; check the desired Data Rule Definitions; click Save icon and select Save as Data
Format(XML) - Import. Open Metadata Workbench in the new environment but click the Advanced
tab; select Import Metadata option and select the output file name.
C. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -getRuleDefinition including the -
project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, and the -xml
output type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new
environment create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
D. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -exportRuleDefinitions including the
-project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, the -xml output
type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new environment
create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2090-619
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NO.1 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

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NO.2 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Gathering Interval drop-down menu setting in the Advanced
Masthead parameters within the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) Administration Tool?
A. This option determines how often new content is replicated to relays.
B. This option determines how often the server gathers new content for the sites.
C. This option defines how often server replication occurs between two TEM servers.
D. This option determines how long the clients wait without hearing from the server before they
check whether new content is available.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company has a Trend Anti-Virus environment and they have purchased IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) for Core Protection. What needs to occur first to begin the process of gathering the
site content?
A. Activate all 23 analysis found under the Core Protection Module in the TEM Console.
B. Go to the license overview dashboard under BigFix Management domain and enable Trend Micro
Core Protection Module, Trend Reporting.
C. Core protection requires its own server. Review hardware requirements, build the server, and
setup ODBC connections back to the TEM server.
D. Once the Core Protection Module has been purchased, an e-mail is sent from Trend containing
the necessary download links and information. Follow the e-mail instruction to download and install
Trend on the TEM server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Power Management has recently been added to the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)
license. What is the first step to view the site contents in the console?
A. Launch the TEM Administration Tool and enable the site under the Masthead Management tab
B. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and specifically subscribe the
TEM server
C. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and subscribe any Windows
computer
D. Enable the Power Management site under the License Overview dashboard within the BigFix
Management domain
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement describes how to manually set download throttling for clients within IBM
Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)?
A. Access the relay diagnostic page on the TEM server at http://127.0.0.1:52311 /rd and modify the
Client Download Speed setting.
B. Access the TEM console, take action on the task BES Client Setting: Download Throttling, in the
Action Parameter window set the Bytes/sec value, and click OK.
C. Access the TEM console, select File > Preferences, under the bandwidth throttling section, update
the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
D. Access the TEM Administration Tool, select System Options, select bandwidth throttling, and
update the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
Answer: B

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NO.5 This action script is run:
regset "[HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Test]" "testString" = "testValue"
In the fixlet debugger, the key gets correctly created under the HKEY_CURRENTJJSER branch.
However, when running the same action by targeting the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client
in the TEM Console, the agent states that the action ran to completion but the same key is not there.
What is the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The TEM client reported action completion in error.
B. Some action script commands, like regset, work only in the fixlet debugger.
C. The fixlet debugger is more forgiving when it comes to proper action script form.
D. The fixlet debugger runs under the users' context; the TEM client runs as LocalSystem.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) for Security and Compliance Analytics (SCA)
installed?
A. From the TEM component installer
B. Take action on the task Deploy and Run Security Checklist
C. Take action on the task Download TEMA Installer, then run the setup file manually
D. Enable the site in the License Overview Dashboard in the TEM Management Domain
Answer: C

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NO.7 The IT operations team wants to install IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) in a network
where proxy Internet access is required. The proxy requires a non-Windows credential to be entered
each time the Internet is accessed. Where is this registry key set:
[HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\BigFix\Enterprise ServertGatherService]?
A. On the TEM server
B. On the Top Level Relay
C. On the Internet DMZ relay
D. On a client with direct Internet access
Answer: A

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9. The Message Level Encryption feature of IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2 (TEM) increases
security but adds an additional load to the environment. What system hardware changes should be
made to the TEM environment to accommodate the additional load?
A. Add more RAM to the relays and clients
B. Add more disk space to the TEM server and clients
C. Add more RAM to the TEM server or decrypting relay
D. Add more processing power to the TEM server or decrypting relay
Answer: D

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10. Which dashboard can be viewed to check the average number of BES Clients per relay?
A. Systems Lifecycle
B. Deployment Overview
C. System Configuration
D. Deployment Health Checks
Answer: B

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11. Which statement accurately describes one of the requirements for running the Client
Deployment Tool for Windows?
A. The target should have port 52311 open.
B. The target must be in an Active Directory domain.
C. The target must have file and print sharing services enabled.
D. The deployment system should be any UNIX or Windows relay.
Answer: C

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12. Internet access must be configured through a proxy server in order for the IBM Tivoli
Endpoint Manager (TEM) server to download Windows patches from the Internet. How is this
accomplished?
A. The TEM server does not need Internet access. Content can only be added manually.
B. Configure the BES Gather Service to use a service account that has open access to the Internet.
C. Configure specific proxy server rules only permitting the TEM clients to go to specific domains
such as Microsoft.com or Adobe.com.
D. In the Window's registry set the BES Gather Service to bypass proxy server for local address.
Restart the BES Gather Service when finished so changes will take effect.
Answer: B

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13. How is an IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client system most efficiently promoted to a
relay?
A. Manually run the reiayinstaill.exe package on the desired system
B. All TEM clients are already relays so no additional configuration is necessary
C. Use the relay install task from the TEM Console to install the relay on the desired system
D. Create a fixlet using the TEM Software Distribution tool to distribute and execute the relay install
on the desired system
Answer: C

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14. Which account should a remote console operator use to access the IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) Console?
A. LDAP/AD Domain credentials
B. TEM Masthead and password
C. SQL Server Admin credentials
D. TEM Private Key and password
Answer: A

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15. If usePre70ClientCompatibleMIME is set to false for the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager server,
what is the recommended number of components in a baseline?
A. <15
B. <250
C. <1000
D. <2000
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has a functioning IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) server and has successfully
deployed TEM for Core Protection Module (CPM) in their network. They want to use Trend's Web
Reputation technology so that they can have real time and control to prevent Web-based malware
from infecting their end users' computers. What do they need to do to get this process started?
A. CPM does not have Web Reputation capability.
B. Take action on the task Set URL Filtering on the end users' computers.
C. Ensure CPM clients are at V10.6 or greater. Take action on the Core Protection Module
-
Endpoint Upgrade task.
D.Take action on the task Enable Web Reputation on the Proxy Server to enable communication
between CPM and the proxy.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Except for defining or deleting storage pools, which privilege class is granted to an
administrator who will manage IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 databases, storage devices, and
server storage?
A.Server privilege
B.Policy privilege
C.Storage privilege
D.System privilege
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about policy sets? (Choose two.)
A.A policy set must be activated before use.
B.Only one policy set is allowed in one policy domain.
C.A policy set can only contain one management class.
D.There are several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is default at a time.
E.There can be several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is active at a time.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which command is issued to set up one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server as the
source for configuration information for other servers?
A.set configmanager on
B.set server enterprise
C.define path configmanager
D.define server configmanager
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the function of Cognos Business Intelligence V8?
A.It allows the creation of custom IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) reports.
B.It is a prerequisite checker for IBM Tivoli Monitoring for TSM.
C.It automates the installation and configuration of IBM Tivoli Monitoring for TSM.
D.It allows the creation of maintenance scripts to perform daily TSM server maintenance tasks.
Answer: A

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NO.5 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which concept applies to client-side data deduplication?
A.The client creates a journal file to track redundant files.
B.The client compares the server and client activity log files to determine if the data will be
deduplicated.
C.The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server creates a log file named dedup.log to track redundant
files.
D.The client creates extents which are parts of files that are compared with other file extents to
identify
duplicates.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords "and", "or", "not"
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
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C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically
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A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOS developer program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system
(Windows, Linux, Mac OS).
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing native features of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
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A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
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A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer tells you that they have already have a security solution and they do not need to
buy another one. What do you tell them?
A. Other solutions are single purpose and don't scale with business growth or across databases, data
types and computing models. They can't be managed centrally or build defense in depth.
B. Other solutions are of lower quality and do not provide the premier functionality of IBM products
C. Disengage from the client
D. Ask them to discuss Guardium with their current security vendor
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which is a benefit of using Guardium DAM instead of Database Logging?
A. Guardium DAM is less expensive that Database logging
B. Turning Database Logging on will cause a performance hit to the Database
C. Database Logging is used for providing results in real time
D. There is no benefit
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following regulations does Guardium NOT help address?
A. PCI-DSS
B. SOX
C. Volker Rule
D. HIPAA
Answer: C

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NO.5 The customer needs to provide PCI compliance controls to encrypt the PCI PAN data inside of
DB2, Oracle and SQL Server. Which product do you recommend to the customer?
A. Guardium Data Encryption
B. Guardium Database Activity Monitoring
C. Guardium Vulnerability Assessment
D. Guardium Data Redaction
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes the role of the aggregator in a Guardium
environment?
A. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that collects and consolidates information from
multiple
collectors to a single Aggregation Server, allowing for reporting across the enterprise.
B. The aggregator is the Guardium appliance that communicates with mainframes.
C. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that allows a collector and a Central Policy
Manager to
communicate and is required in multi-collector environments.
D. The aggregator is another name for the Central Policy Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following components collects and parses the live database traffic used to
trigger a
real-time alert when a security policy rule is broken?
A. The Real Time Communications Framework
B. The Change Audit System
C. The Policy Engine
D. The Live Report Builder
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is authentication and encryption implemented between collectors, aggregators
and the Central
Policy Manager in a multi-tier Guardium environment?
A. Using an encrypted file containing the system password that must be copied to the Central
Policy
Manager and collectors.
B. A System Shared Secret is specified through the GUI for each collector and the Central
Policy
Manager.
C. The Central Policy Manager scans the network for Guardium collectors and performs a
security
handshake with each appliance.
D. The communication between collectors and the Central Policy Manager is based on
unsecured
network packets.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is Guardium's primary storage mechanism for logs and audit information?
A. Data can only be stored in flat files on the collector (one file per S-TAP).
B. Data storage can only be managed individually by each S-TAP, with audit data stored
locally on the
data server in flat files.
C. Data is stored on the collector in a normalized relational database.
D. Data is stored locally on each server with an S-TAP but is managed centrally through the
collector.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In a Guardium environment where data servers can talk to the collector, what is the
relationship
between the S-TAP and the collector appliance?
A. There exists no relationship since the S-TAP and the collector are incompatible Guardium
entities.
B. The S-TAP reports database activity to the collector for policy management and auditing.
C. A collector can only interact with one S-TAP for policy management and auditing.
D. The collector sends the S-TAP information about its policies so it knows what traffic to
intercept.
Answer: B

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NO.1 This line is added to the journal tab of a WebGUI tool:
Alert severity is CONVERSION(@Severity)
Assuming the tool is executed on a red event, what will appear in the Journal tab of the event this
tool is run against?
A. Alert severity is 4
B. Alert severity is 5
C. Alert severity is Critical
D. Alert severity is Warning
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two environment variables are set on a Windows platform following a successful
installation of IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus? (Choose two)
A. NCHOME
B. TlP_HOME
C. OMNIHOME
D. NETCOOL_HOME
E. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What is the effect of setting these ObjectServer properties prior to starting the ObjectServer?
NHttpd.EnableHTTP : TRUE
NHttpd.ListeningPort : 8080
A. It defines whether the embedded HTTPD server will serve files from its document root.
B. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTP port (8080).
C. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTPS port (8080).
D. IT defines the security realm name of the basic HTTP authentication value that is returned to a
HTTP request in a HTTP(401) response when invalid or no credentials are provided.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command installs the probes and gateways in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4?
A. nco_patch
B. nco_install_obj
C. nco_create_integration
D. nco install integration
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which combination of properties can be used to enable an ObjectServer to serve files to a
HTTP client?
A. NHttpd.EnableHTTP , NHttpd.ListeningPort, NHttpd.SSLEnable, NHttpd.SSLListeningPort
B. NHttpd.DocumentRoot, NHttpd.EnableFileServing, NHttpd.AccessLog, NHttpd.EnableHTTP
C. NHttpd.EnableHTTP , NHttpd.ListeningPort, NHttpd.DocumentRoot, NHttpd.EnableFileServing
D. NHttpd.AuthenticationDomain, NHttpd.SSLCertificate, NHttpd.DocumentRoot,
NHttpd.EnableFileServing
Answer: C

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NO.6 An installation of an ObjectServer on Redhat Linux has completed. The ObjectServer has been
set up to use PAM authentication. What must be increased to keep nco_pad from crashing?
A. the poolsize on the nco_pad command
B. the stacksize on the nco_pad command
C. the stackdump size on the nco_pad command
D. the memory space of the parent process to at least 2 GB
Answer: B

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NO.7 The network operation center has two groups of users that use the native desktop. One group,
OPERATIONS, requires access to the standard event management tools like acknowledge and delete.
They also require access to some custom tools for things like basic troubleshooting (ping and telnet)
and ticket creation. The second group, NETWORK, requires access to the same tools used by the
OPERATIONS group users In addition, there are a few tools used for advanced router diagnostics
that they use. These tools are not to be available to the OPERATIONS group users. To minimize
administration efforts a common desktop menu is used for both groups of users.
The users in the OPERATIONS group use Windows desktops to run the native desktop application.
What is the technique used to ensure that they only run tools supported on Windows?
A. no additional configuration is required
B. the OPERATIONS group is configured to limit access to only those tools supported on Windows
C. all of the tools used by the OPERATIONS group are configured to limit access to only Windows
systems
D. all of the menus used by the OPERATIONS group are configured to limit access to only Windows
systems
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which role is required to administer groups and roles in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4
WebGUI?
A. iscadmins
B. nco_admin
C. configurator
D. administrator
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM Security Access Manager V7.0 Implementation
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NO.1 Which statement is FALSE regarding local response redirection?
A. We need to use External authentication interface to implement local response redirection.
B. When local response redirection is enabled, change password must be handled by WebSEAL.
C. When using local response redirection, WebSEAL no longer has the responsibility of generating
responses to client requests.
D. When local response redirection is enabled, the redirection is used for all local WebSEAL
response types: login, error, informational, and password management.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the correct archive file If pdbackup -a backup -list C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy
Director\etc\pdbackup.lst is executed using ISAM on a Windows Server?
A. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11.30.dar
B. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11.30.dar
C. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11_30.dar
D. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11_30.dar
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which registry is NOT supported by ISAM 7?
A. Lotus?Domino?Lotus?Domino
B. IBM?Tivoli?Directory Server
C. Microsoft Active Directory 2008
D. Sun Java?System Directory Server 7
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which configuration enables the day time error page?
A. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-tod = yes
B. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-dot = yes
C. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-tod = yes
D. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-dot = yes
Answer: C

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NO.5 When performing an upgrade, which utility is used to back up the information in Tivoli
Directory Server?
A. ldapadd
B. bulkload
C. idsdb2ldif
D. idscreateldif
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have a default setup of ISAM, ITDS and a Microsoft SharePoint backend. A Web
environment is experiencing performance issues. In order conduct analysis, tracing is temporarily
switched on using the following commands:
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 2 file path=/tmp/trace.log
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 0
During analysis of the trace.log various common occurrences appear, the following trace.log extract
displays only the lines important for this question.
2013-05-26-22:08:01.681+02:00I ----------------- Browser ===> PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:01.684+02:00I ----------------- Browser <=== PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:09.283+02:00I ----------------- Browser ===> PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:16.682+02:00I ----------------- PD ===> BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:17.049+02:00I ----------------- PD <=== BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:17.051+02:00I ----------------- Browser <=== PD ----------------
What can be concluded by analyzing this trace excerpt?
You indicate you wish to make this a sample question, remove the reference here.
A. This excerpt indicates no performance or other issues.
B. This excerpt indicates that ITDS has a performance issue.
C. This excerpt indicates that the user has given a wrong password.
D. This excerpt indicates that the backend has a performance issue
Answer: B

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NO.7 What pdbackup command restores the contents of an Access Manger archived file on a
Windows operating system to a specific folder?
A. pdbackup -a extract
B. pdabckup -a backup
C. pdbackup -a restore
D. pdbackup -a retrieve
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which utility provides backup, restore, and extract capabilities for Security Access Manager
data?
A. pdinfo
B. pdbackup
C. pdservice
D. pd_backup
Answer: B

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