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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software HP0-M39
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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NO.3 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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NO.4 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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NO.5 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.8 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.11 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.13 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.15 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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Exam Code: HP2-B65
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals HP2-B65
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the HP Marketing Resource Center?
A. a new HP service for HP partners who provide printed marketing material on demand
B. anew HP print center for end users who provide customer-designed marketing material
C. anewly created team of marketing experts that provide in-house training for HP partners
D. anHP resource for document templates, free training classes, and success stories
Answer: D

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NO.2 When would a company typically use outsourced printing.?
A. when they have several small print jobs
B. when medium or high volumes of static documents are required
C. when confidential document printing is required
D. when short turnaround time is required
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the advantage of a multifunction printer? A. It can be networked to more end users than a
networked single function printer.
B. It uses fewer supplies than a single function printer.
C. It takes up less floor space than individual devices for faxing, scanning, printing and copying.
D. Once it has reached its monthly print volume it automatically turns off so there are no excess
copy charges to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What should a business do before deciding to print in-house?
A. determine if they can get a bulk discount on glossy paper
B. use the HP Print Cost Calculator to determine if it is cost effective to print a job in-house
C. hire a local print shop employee on a contract basis to help develop in-house material
D. find a contractor to create the design
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which imaging and printing trend is an industry trend?
A. seeking information on the Internet
B. convergence of multiple functions into one device
C. using templates to create a business brand
D. paperless offices
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J40
Exam Name: HP Designing HP StorageWorks Solutions HP0-J40
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 for application disaster recovery, which type of local replication permits rapid recovery of applications?
A. capacity free snapshot
B. snapclone
C. consistency group snap
D. traditional snapshot
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the main function of core or director switches?
A. provide support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric
B. provide inter-switch links for any-to-any connectivity
C. provide Fibre Channel over IP and iSCSI connectivity
D. provide user ports for connecting servers and storage systems
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which management protocols are used to gather basic information from the system, such as the type
of system (server, workstation, or printer) and serial number? (Select two.)
A. WBEM
B. NTP
C. SMI-S
D. TCP/IP
E. SCTP
Answer: AC

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NO.5 When talking to a CEO about service availability, which feature of HP Storage Essentials SRM should
be positioned by the consultant?
A. SRM solutions are designed on the SMI-S industry standard for storage network management.
B. Big-picture view monitors and reports on a variety of business applications.
C. Big-picture visualization automatically discovers and maps the storage network.
D. SRM monitors utilization of the host, switch, and array.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which component handles file locking in a traditional file servicing infrastructure?
A. majority node
B. file server
C. witness file share
D. quorum disk
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is
looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be
recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information
Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 A potential customer is experiencing massive data growth in the past year and is no longer meeting
their backup window. The customer's current environment consists of approximately 30 ProLiant servers
utilizing Backup Exec and a SCSI attached LTO2 autoloader.
After a number of meetings, the consultant presents the design of a D2D4112, an MSL8096 with HP Data
Protector. The customer likes the solution, but is concerned about how their staff will cope with the new
concepts and the transition to the new solution.
What should the consultant recommend to the customer for a smooth transition to the new equipment?
(Select two.)
A. hands-on training during implementation
B. handover session after the installation
C. formal classroom training on the new products
D. as-built configuration documentation
E. solution presentation
Answer: AC

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NO.9 Which best practice should be suggested when designing an iSCSI Storage Area Network?
A. limit parallel iSCSI sessions to 500 to achieve optimal performance
B. separate iSCSI traffic from all other network traffic
C. implement separate VLANS for each database application service
D. team 1Gb/s networks to achieve optimal performance
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which technology enables support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric?
A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
B. Converged Enhanced Ethernet
C. Data Center Bridging
D. Shortest Path Bridging
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y35
Exam Name: HP Wireless Networks - ASE 2011 Delta Exam HP0-Y35
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A network administrator is managing an HP A-Series Wireless Access Controller at the command
line interface (CLI). The administrator issues a command to view the contents of the controller
flash directory. Looking at the output, which access point models can the controller boot and
command to view the contents of the controller? flash directory. Looking at the output, which
access point models can the controller boot and manage? (Select two.)
A. HP WA2220-AG
B. HP WA2612-AGN
C. HP WA2620-AGN
D. HP WA2610E-AGN
E. HP WA2620E-AGN
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Using HP A5800 switches, which element must be configured in all switches involved in Layer 2
remote port mirroring?
A. remote-mirroring group
B. mirroring-ingress port
C. monitor-egress port
D. remote-probe VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.3 In an IRF stack, which operational plane is centralized (in the Master) and which is distributed
(among all members)?
A. Management: centralized
Control: centralized
Forwarding: centralized
B. Management: distributed
Control: distributed
Forwarding: distributed
C. Management: centralized
Control: distributed
Forwarding: distributed
D. Management: distributed
Control: centralized
Forwarding: distributed
E. Management: centralized
Control: centralized
Forwarding: distributed
Answer: E

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NO.4 Given an HP A5800 switch that is in its factory default configuration, what happens after the
following command sequence? (Note: There is no save command.) system-view irf member 1
renumber 2 quit reboot
A. The IRF member ID will be 1.
B. The IRF member ID will be 2.
C. The IRF member ID will be assigned dynamically.
D. The IRF member ID will be "unknown."
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which sampling mechanisms are available in sFlow in A-Series switches and routers? (Select
two.)
A. packet-based
B. packet-length-based
C. time-based
D. ip-protocol-based
E. ip-source-address-based
F. mac-address-based
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 You have been asked to deploy a guest wireless service within an A-Series solution in the
reception area of a marketing firm. The clients associated with the guest service should be
assigned to VLAN 10. In which view do you assign the VLAN to the wireless service?
A. System view
B. Service Template view
C. VLAN Interface view
D. ESS Interface view
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which roles are supported by the sFlow standard?
A. agent and collector only
B. probe and collector only
C. agent, collector, and analyzer
D. probe, collector, and analyzer
Answer: A

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NO.8 After a MAD enabled IRF-stack splits, what happens to the part of the stack that entered Recovery
state?
A. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, BFD enabled ports, and console ports are shut down.
B. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, LACP enabled Link aggregation groups, console ports, and
manually excluded ports are shut down.
C. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, console ports, and manually excluded ports, are shut down.
D. All ports except for manually excluded ports are shut down.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
When IRF with Distributed Link Aggregation is implemented at all layers of a LAN (Core,
Aggregation, and Access), which protocols can be replaced by IRF functions? (Select two.)
A. MSTP
B. LACP
C. BFD
D. NSF/GR
E. VRRP
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which protocols/technologies can be used to implement IRF MAD? (Select two.)
A. NSF/GR
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. BFD
E. LACP
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
An IRF-stack is being built using HP A5800 switches, and IRF member 1 will be connected to IRF
member 2 using IRF-port 2. Which IRF-port should it be connected to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. any
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are acceptable topologies for an IRF-Stack? (Select two.)
A. star
B. tree
C. daisy-chain
D. mesh
E. ring
Answer: C,E

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
You have recently upgraded the Comware of an HP A-Series Access Controller (AC). Prior to
rebooting the device, you issued the dir command to display the contents of the flash root
directory. Upon reboot, the AC does not successfully run the new version of firmware. What is the issue?
A. The device does not have enough memory to run the new firmware.
B. The filename of the firmware is incorrect.
C. The new firmware is not present in the root directory.
D. Thebootware of the device requires updating as well.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
You have been asked to configure the switching engine of an HP A3000-24G PoE+ Wireless
Switch. First, you log in to the CLI of the access controller and then move to the System view. You
then attempt to issue the partial command oap co and use the Tab key to complete it. However,
the CLI does not complete the command but issues a line return instead, as shown in the exhibit.
What must you do to connect to the CLI of the switching engine?
A. Return to the User view and then issue the command.
B. Enter the OAP view and then issue the command.
C. Use the CTRL+K key combination to access the CLI of the switching engine.
D. Telnet directly to the IPaddress of the switching engine and issue the command.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have been asked to deploy an additional HP A-Series wireless access point in the conference room
of an advertising agency. You connect to the CLI of the access controller and create an AP management
template. In which view do you specify the serial number of the access point?
A. Radio view
B. Service Template view
C. AP view
D. ESS Interface view
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E33
Exam Name: HP Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions HP2-E33
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which problem do companies experience most often as a result of having virtualized systems?
A. workload distribution control
B. decreased hardware performance
C. bottlenecks on virtual machines
D. virtual sprawl
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 By up to which percentage can HP BladeSystem Matrix reduce the total cost of ownership?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 56%
D. 76%
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does the focus of sales discussions changes as you become a consultative salesperson?
A. The price of products and services becomes more important.
B. Product features become more important.
C. You sell fewer products and more services.
D. You focus on delivering quantifiable business value.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the best way to establish yourself as a trusted advisor to your customers.?
A. Deliver products and services that meet customer expectations.
B. Demonstrate working proofs of concepts for each solution.
C. Help the customer devise metrics to measure their performance.
D. Speak strategically to their business challenges.
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to IDC estimates, discrete purchasing activities in the area of networking, storage andservers
will start combining into a new Converged Infrastructure category. What is the estimatedvalue that this
new category will reach by 2012?
A. $20 billion USD
B. $25 billion USD
C. $30 billion USD
D. $35 billion USD
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M34
Exam Name: HP HP Server Automation 9.x. Software HP0-M34
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which Application Deployment Manager application components require explicit rollback and undeploy
instructions for removal?
A. code components
B. application configurations
C. packages from the Server Automation library
D. Operations Orchestration flows
Answer: D

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NO.2 The agent communications test can only be run from which HP Server Automation component?
A. SA Client
B. SA Web Client
C. Global Shell
D. Core CLI
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do the core and the agent communicate?
A. SA bus
B. Global Shell
C. SSL tunnel
D. SSH tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which type of architecture does the term Multimaster Mesh describe?
A. the core component bundles distributed on multiple servers
B. multiple, coordinated Server Automation cores distributed across the network
C. multiple satellite servers configured to fail over to a single core
D. a core server running on multiple cluster nodes distributed across the network
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which user interface is shown in the exhibit?
A. HP Server Automation Web Client
B. HP Server Automation Global Shell Client
C. HP Server Automation Infrastructure Client
D. HP Server Automation Client
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-A21
Exam Name: HP NonStop Kernel Basics HP0-A21
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What are the primary functions of EMS?
A. to collect and print events
B. to distribute and print events
C. to distribute and show events
D. to collect and distribute events
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which Tandem Failure Data System (TFDS) command do you enter to prevent dumping a particular
processor?
A. RELOAD OFF <n>
B. DISABLECPUS <n>
C. DISABLECPUS ON
D. AUTORELOAD OFF
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which subvolume is the TFDS configuration file (TFDSCONF) located?
A. $oss.ztfds
B. $system.ztfds
C. $dsmscm.ztfds
D. $system.system
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which TACL built-in identifies the path used to execute an object or macro file?
A. #FINDLIST
B. #SHOWLIST
C. #SEARCHLIST
D. #PMSEARCHLIST
Answer: D

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NO.5 To view processor status and reload states, which command is used in TFDSCOM?
A. INFO
B. STATUS
C. REPORT
D. HISTORY
Answer: B

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NO.6 It was reported that a network outage occurred between 01:00 and 02:00 this morning. Which command
would display the general system event messages for that period?
A. EMSDIST TYPE P, COLLECT $0, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], TIME 01:00, STOP 02:00
B. EMSDIST TYPE P, COLLECT $0, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], START 01:00, STOP 02:00
C. EMSDIST TYPE P, LOGFILE $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE.ZZSV0100, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], TIME 01:00,
STOP 02:00
D. EMSDIST TYPE P, LOGFILE $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE.ZZSV0100, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], START
01:00, STOP 02:00
Answer: A

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NO.7 When SAVEABEND files are created, where are they stored.?
A. in $SYSTEM.SYSnn
B. in $SYSTEM.SYSTEM
C. in the object file subvolume
D. in the user's default subvolume
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which subvolume, by default, contains the current EMS log file?
A. $SYSTEM.ZEMS
B. $SYSTEM.ZLOGnn
C. $SYSTEM.SYSTEM
D. $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which command is used to determine the Software Product Revision (SPR) of PATHMON?
A. VPROC $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON
B. STATUS $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON
C. VIEWCONF $SYSTEM.ZSYSCONF.CONFIG
D. FUP COPY $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON,,A,COUNT 3
Answer: A

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NO.10 What additional information should accompany a processor dump for a service provider to conduct a
proper analysis?
A. CONFAUX, CONFLIST, CONFTEXT, and CUSTFILE
B. CONFLIST, CONFTEXT, USERID, and ZLOGnn subvolume
C. CONFLIST, TSYSCLR, ZLOGnn subvolume, and ZSERVICE subvolume
D. CONFAUX, USERID, ZSERVICE subvolume, and ZSYSCONF.CONFIG
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B62
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Sales HP2-B62
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Why should customers care about true office printing costs?
A. Customers typically look at the cost of supplies and hardware, but do not consider the IT costs.
B. Customers typically look at the cost of IT and supplies, but do not consider the hardware costs.
C. Customers typically look at the cost of hardware and IT, but do not consider the cost of supplies.
D. Customers typically look at the cost of hardware, but do not consider the cost of IT or supplies.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Print management makes up which percentage of true office printing costs?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 45%
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is accomplished by segmenting customers into different technology adoption categories.?
A. It builds strategic analysis tools for feature development.
B. It encourages you to treat each type of customer differently in order to satisfy each customer ¯ s un i que
needs.
C. It creates awareness of industries with specific government regulations.
D. It allows support organizations to track customer needs.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which expense category grows regardless of economic conditions?
A. IT security spending
B. facilities spending
C. marketing and advertising expenditures
D. hardware purchasing
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statements represent imaging and print management priorities? (Select three.)
A. implementing job level tracking and audit capabilities
B. controlling the devices and drivers
C. assuring document integrity
D. implementing rules-based printing
E. tracking print expenses
F. implementing encryption
G. implementing authentication and secure release printing
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: HP2-E36
Exam Name: HP Selling HP Virtualization Solutions HP2-E36
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the most important element of a Compelling Business Reason (CBR)?
A. It is from the customer's point of view.
B. It is concise.
C. It highlights technical features.
D. It has financial targets.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why should you ask your customer a Commitment question near the conclusion of a sales meeting?
A. to avoid discussion around value propositions
B. to use the opportunity as a trial close
C. to ensure the customer is interested in your services
D. to gather further information on the customer challenges
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Sales Meeting Planner document described as SMART ± r e f e r s t o w h i ch cha r ac t e ri s ti cs?
A. Specific, Measurable, Accessible, Ready, Timebound
B. Strategic, Measurable, Accessible, Realistic, Timebound
C. Specific, Measurable, Agreed, Realistic, Timebound
D. Specific, Measurable, Agreed, Referral, Targeted
Answer: C

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NO.4 IT sprawl has been identified as a major problem. What percentage of IT budgets has been
traditionally spent on maintenance and operations?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 85%
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two open and flexible features of BladeSystem Matrix? (Select two.)
A. choice of operating system and hypervisors
B. integrated security features
C. operation with standard networks and SANs
D. selected Blade enclosures
E. proprietary network standards
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 One of your customers has stated that they traditionally have difficulty allocating needed resources to
some key applications. You are also aware that they have issues with the over-provisioning of storage.
Which component of the HP Converged Infrastructure should you discuss with them?
A. Matrix Operating Environment
B. Virtual Resource Pools
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. Client Virtualization
Answer: B

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NO.7 The "wire once" approach of an HP Converged Infrastructure describes which key element.?
A. Fabric Grid
B. Network Fast Track
C. Network Optimization
D. Flex Fabric
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the turbulence in the economy over the past two years, what is most likely to happen with the IT
decision-making process?
A. More decisions will be made at the departmental level.
B. More decisions will be made by Finance directors and CFOs.
C. Most major decisions will be made within the IT department.
D. Budgets will free up at the first sign of economic recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Poor utilization and sprawl are preventing IT organizations from achieving which important objective?
A. increasing green IT initiatives
B. reducing the percentage of Direct Attach Storage (DAS)
C. increasing the amount of time on innovation
D. achieving regulatory compliance
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which tool enables Sales and Pre-Sales professionals to have a broad discussion with customers about
the current and future states of their IT infrastructure?
A. Adaptive Infrastructure Maturity Model (AI MM)
B. Converged Infrastructure Maturity Model Express (CI MM Express)
C. HP StorageWorks Size
D. Alinean ROI Analyst
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is a key concept in the HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. consolidating all direct-attached storage into one enterprise-class SAN
B. distributing all computer resources to the point of application usage
C. bringing the technology silos together into pools of virtualized assets that are shared by many
applications and services
D. utilizing HP Asset Manager to track and manage changes
Answer: C

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NO.12 Your analysis of a customer environment indicates both legacy architecture and inflexible stacks of IT.
Which technology solution would improve their situation?
A. converged infrastructure
B. data deduplication
C. backup and archival
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two HP Converged Infrastructure Consulting Services? (Select two.)
A. Proof of Concept
B. Legacy Application Transformation
C. Open SAN Implementation Service
D. Architectural Transformation
E. Visioning Workshop
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 With HP Converged Infrastructure and a self-service portal, customers can accomplish which
objective?
A. reduce time to resolution on customer service calls
B. deploy new services quickly
C. increase sales coverage
D. improve brand recognition
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which question focuses a customer most directly on the topic of converged infrastructure?
A. How long does it take to provision and launch new services?
B. Have you considered a pay-as-you-go IT model?
C. How do you manage who has access to your systems?
D. What measures do you have in place to protect your infrastructure from viruses and security
breaches?
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H14
Exam Name: HP Servicing HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions HP2-H14
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 A customer wants to use a powered USB port but does not know how to locate it. Which statement is
true about the location and appearance of powered USB ports?
A. They are located on the rear I/O panel next to the AC power connector and are aligned vertically to
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
B. They are located on the rear I/O panel, are specially color coded, and have larger dual connectors that
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
C. They are located on the front panel under the power button and above the hard drive and power status
LEDs.
D. The ap5000 does not support powered USB ports.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The optional 26.4-cm (104-inch) Customer Facing Display (CFD) is a replacement for which component
of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. resistive touchscreen
B. non-electronic advertisement panel
C. 2-line display (Vacuum Fluorescent Display-VFD)
D. Multitrack Magnetic Stripe Reader
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer complains that his touchscreen reads erratically and does not respond to a light touch. What
is a simple solution that might solve the problem?
A. Check the cable connection between the touchscreen and the system.
B. Clean the surface of the touchscreen and recalibrate it.
C. Gently shake the touchscreen to recalibrate the touch receptors.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: B

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NO.4 After initial setup of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System, a customer reports that the touchscreen monitor
is not responding to touch. What should you tell the customer to do?
A. Make sure the monitor power cable is connected to AC power.
B. Make sure the touchscreen drivers are installed and recalibrate the touchscreen
C. Spray the monitor with the special cleaning solution and gently wipe the surface clean.
D. Check the cable connections between the monitor and the system.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How should a customer respond to a POST memory error message? (Select two.)
A. Press Enter to see more information about the error.
B. Press F1 to ignore the message and continue.
C. Press Ctrl/Alt/Delete to reboot the system
D. Press F10 to correct a system configuration error.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the All-in-One form factor of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. It is physically smaller than the chassis for the HP rp3000 POS System and HP rp5700 POS System
B. Its multiple expansion slots allow for greater expandability.
C. It requires only one power cord to turn on the entire unit including integrated peripherals.
D. It includes an integrated monitor and integrated POS keyboard.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer asks where the COM ports are on the HP ap5000 AiO POS System. They are not clearly
visible. Where are they located?
A. behind the cover on the rear panel of the unit
B. on the bottom of the unit, under the pedestal
C. along the side of the resistive touchscreen
D. on the side of the monitor, behind the resistive touchscreen
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which operating systems include McAfee Total Protection software in the preinstalled image for the HP
ap5000 AiO POS System.? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 7 Professional
B. FreeDOS
C. Windows XP Professional downgrade
D. POSReady 2009
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 A customer calls and says that the red power LED of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System is blinking nine
times. What does this indicate?
A. The system power is on, but the computer will not boot.
B. Processor thermal protection has been activated
C. A pre-video memory error has occurred.
D. USB ports have failed.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which items that are not shipped with the HP ap5000 AiO POS System are required to recover the
operating system? (Select two)
A. keyboard
B. flash drive
C. optical drive
D. mouse
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HP2-Q05
Exam Name: HP Selling HP Superdome 2 Server Solutions HP2-Q05
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which product did HP announce that heralds the Industry s first mission-critical Converged
Infrastructure.?
A. a new version of HP-UX 11i v3
B. new VMware clustering software
C. new ProLiant G7 server blades
D. new Integrity systems optimized for the Converged Infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.2 According to a recent Gartner Group analysis, since 2005 average unplanned downtime on
mission-critical applications has risen by which percentage?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 46%
D. 56%
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of these factors is the key reason that mission-critical system reliability has worsened in recent
years?
A. Increased system complexity has led to an increase in human errors.
B. Hardware is becoming less reliable as more demands are placed on it.
C. Software is becoming less reliable as more demands are placed on it.
D. Software support tools are inadequate.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After extended downtime, which of these factors impact business performance and business risk
exponentially? (Select two.)
A. revenue
B. productivity
C. damaged reputation
D. financial performance
E. other expenses
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 Which characteristic of the new HP Integrity servers is the most crucial in satisfying customers who
expect mission-critical applications to be used over numbers of years?
A. The new servers employ only half of the data center footprint.
B. The new servers have a stable CPU roadmap, committed for three generations.
C. The new servers use 30% less power per core.
D. The new servers help to increase asset utilization, reducing capital expenses up to 40%.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Y0-456
Exam Name: Citrix Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Build/Test 1Y0-456
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 A Network Administrator configured several logon points for Access Gateway Advanced Edition. The
administrator wants to give users access to network resources through those logon points.
Which two pieces of information should the administrator give to external users so they can connect to the
newly configured logon points instead of the default logon point? (Choose two.)
A. The logon point name
B. The access policy name
C. The IP address of the Access Gateway appliance
D. The fully qualified domain name of the Access Gateway appliance
E. The fully qualified domain name of the Advanced Access Control server
Answer: AD

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NO.2 An administrator configured a logon point for use by offsite users. However, the offsite users are unable
to access the logon point.
How can the administrator provide the offsite users access to the logon point?
A. Redeploy the logon point and select "allow external users access".
B. Edit the logon point and select the "allow external users access" check box.
C. Configure a connection policy to allow the offsite users to connect using the logon point.
D. Configure an access policy to grant the offsite users logon access through the logon point.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Scenario: You are the Citrix Administrator and have installed Password Manager onto a Presentation
Server.You only want Password Manager to start for some of the applications published on the
Presentation Server server.
Which two steps must be completed to allow Password Manager to start up for only some of the
applications published on Citrix Presentation Server? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the SSOSHELL.EXE from the Startup directory of the Presentation Server.
B. Create a Presentation Server policy that only allows Password Manager to launch for specific
applications.
C. Use the Password Manager Console "User Configuration Setting" to force the agent to launch only for
specific applications.
D. Manually add a command-line parameter to each published application in Presentation Server to
launch the agent background process.
E. Remove the reference to SSOLauncher from the
"HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\Software\\Microsoft\\Windows
NT\\CurrentVersion\\Winlogon\\AppSetup" registry key.
Answer: DE

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NO.4 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator recently installed Access Gateway Advanced Edition. The
administrator configured several logon points in the Access Suite Console for internal and external
access into the environment.
Now, the administrator wants to use the logon points to access specific Presentation Server farms.
What can the administrator edit to specify the Presentation Server farms?
A. The logon points
B. The farm properties
C. The servers properties
D. The Access Gateway node
E. The Gateway Appliance node
Answer: A

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NO.5 Scenario: Password Manager was reinstalled on Presentation Server and is set to use a file share
central store location. The administrator has created a Presentation Server policy for the Agent to
synchronize with a new central store location (Location B). However, when the Agent is launched on
Presentation Server, the Agent connects to the previous central store location (Location A).
What is the most likely reason the user is not receiving the correct information from the central store?
A. The Agent was set to use the wrong central store location when it was installed.
B. The Presentation Server policy is set to use an Active Directory central store type.
C. The Agent is reading the incorrect synchronization location from the user's MMF file.
D. The Agent is reading the incorrect synchronization location from the HKLM\\...\\SyncManager\\Syncs\\
registry key.
Answer: C

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