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Exam Code: HP2-K35
Exam Name: Support and Service HP StoreOnce Solutions
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Last Update: 2014-06-30

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Exam Code: HP0-M55
Exam Name: ArcSight ESM Administrator
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Exam Code: HP0-S23
Exam Name: Design and Implementation of HP Systems Insight Manager v5.3
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NO.1 What must be done first to restore the database from an online backup?
A. run the Oracle restore wizard
B. ensure that the archived redo logs are located in the archive log destination
C. bring the affected tablespaces online
D. reinstall the Oracle installation
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which key pair types are valid selections when using the Manager Setup Wizard to create an SSL key
pair? (Select two.)
A. non-expiring SSL key pair
B. self-signed key pair
C. demo key pair
D. random generator key pair
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What is a trust store (sometimes called a key store)?
A. the preferred source for obtaining signed certificates
B. a list of trusted Certificate Authorities
C. the location of a system's private keys
D. the set of backup files containing SSL information
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which ArcSight Foundation should you use to identify traffic and bandwidth usage?
A. Configuration Monitoring
B. Intrusion Monitoring
C. ArcSight Administration
D. Network Monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.5 During Connector install, which statement is true about the ArcSight Manager's host name or IP
address?
A. It must match the host name or IP address in the ArcSight Manager's SSL certificate.
B. The host name or IP address is used as an encryption key.
C. It can be any legitimate host name or IP address.
D. It must contain a combination of alpha-numeric characters.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are ArcSight Foundations?
A. user groups organized to explore and share ideas for extending ArcSight ESM capabilities
B. coordinated resources that provide monitoring, analysis, and reporting capabilities
C. categories of resources used for monitoring ArcSight system health and status
D. packages that are installed but cannot be modified
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which ArcSight Foundation should you use to identify and analyze unexpected modifications to
systems, devices, or applications?
A. Configuration Monitoring
B. Intrusion Monitoring
C. ArcSight Administration
D. Network Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.8 What happens when a Connector upgrade that was initiated from within the ArcSight Console fails.?
A. The Connector automatically rolls back to the previously working version.
B. The Connector does not respond to the failed upgrade.
C. The Connector reports to the Manager that the upgrade failed and then died.
D. The Connector automatically attempts the upgrade again.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EK0-001
Exam Name: E-Biz+
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Exam Code: PK1-003
Exam Name: CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam
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NO.1 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.2 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.5 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.6 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.7 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.8 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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Exam Name: CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam
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Exam Code: JK0-802
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (JK0-802)
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NO.1 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.2 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The EV of a particular project is $6 million. The CV is -$340,000. Which of the following can be
determined from this information?
A. The project costs are currently under-budget.
B. The AC is less than the EV.
C. The EV Is higher than the AC.
D. The project costs are currently over-budget.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.5 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: AE

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NO.6 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1D0-61B
Exam Name: Site Development Associate
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NO.1 You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a
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the <map> </map> container tags?
A. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz"
B. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
C. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
D. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href=http://www.xyz.com />
Answer: C

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NO.2 Consider the following HTML5 code:
The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DOCTYPEdeclaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD).
Answer: C

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NO.3 Marion is formatting a simple Web page. She has been asked to create headings before the
first and third paragraphs.
To accomplish this most efficiently, which type of HTML
elements should Marion use?
A. Text-level elements
B. Block quote elements
C. Fixed-width font elements
D. Paragraph-level elements
Answer: D

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NO.4 Katie developed her corporation's intra net site using proprietary HTML language extensions
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consistently. What should Katie do to ensure that this site's content renders consistently regardless
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A. Revise the site to include workarounds and hacks for the new browser.
B. Revise the site's markup language in only those areas that are not rendering properly.
C. Update the site using a single language standard consistently, such as HTML5 or XHTML.
D. Update the site using the proprietary language extensions required by the new browser's
rendering engine.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which <1mg> tag attribute is required in order for HTML5 documents to validate without
error?
A. id
B. alt
C. name
D. title
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which HTML validator is best for a final check before a new Web site is published?
A. GUI HTML editor's validator
B. Your browser's add-on validator
C. W3C validator at http://validator.w3.org
D. W3C validator at http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/
Answer: C

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NO.7 When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. Use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. Resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. Use the images without purchasing a license.
D. Assumecopyrightof the images.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script.
Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value
pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A08
Exam Name: Advanced Administration for Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows for Windows Server 2008
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Exam Code: 1Y0-A03
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 2.0 Enterprise Edition: Administration
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NO.1 An administrator must configure streamed applications to work for some Windows-based laptop users
who may NOT be connected to the corporate network when working remotely.
Which two steps must the administrator perform in order to meet the needs of this environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure laptop users for offline access
B. Install the XenApp Web Plugin on each laptop
C. Configure the application profiles for offline access
D. Enable the published application for offline access
Answer: AD

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NO.2 In which situation should the CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer
service be set to start
automatically?
A. Citrix XenApp runs on a single processor server
B. The Resource Manager tool is used to monitor CPU sharing
C. It is desirable to monitor CPU sharing using the Access Management Console
D. Multiple instances of a single-threaded application are running on the same CPU
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which Citrix service directly depends on the IMA service?
A. WMI
B. Licensing
C. XTE Server
D. Print Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Scenario: Users are reporting that their printers are NOT auto-creating. The administrator investigates
and discovers that the Citrix Print Manager Service is NOT running. When attempting to start the service,
the administrator receives the error shown in the attached screenshot.
Click the Exhibit button to view the error message.
Which two actions could resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Recreate the Ctx_cpsvcuser account
B. Recreate the network Service account
C. Recreate the Ctx_streamingsvc account
D. Ensure the Ctx_cpsvcuser account has logon as service rights
E. Ensure the Network Service account has logon as service rights
F. Ensure the Ctx_streamingsvc account has logon as service rights
Answer: AD

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NO.5 An administrator needs to allow client drive mapping using the ICAClient.ADM template. Drives A
through D should NOT be mapped Correct configuration into the dialogue box to disallow the mapping of
drives A through D.?
A. A-D
B. A:D
C. ABCD
D. A to D
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two reasons would cause an administrator to exclude certain applications from Memory
Optimization before testing them? (Choose two.)
A. Some application components are digitally signed
B. The applications allow Windows to load the .DLL files it calls
C. The applications are memory-intensive when run in multiple sessions
D. The applications use Windows Rights Management to protect its .DLL files
E. The applications download additional components from the Internet during installation
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Scenario: During testing, a new application crashes on Citrix XenApp servers.After investigating, the
administrator identifies that the application is NOT compatible with the virtual memory management
feature, which has been enabled.
How can the administrator prevent the application from being affected by the memory management
feature without disabling memory management for all applications?
A. Add the application to the .SFO file
B. Stream the application to the server
C. Add the application to the Exclude Application list
D. Remove the application from the memory management list in the registry
Answer: C

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NO.8 Scenario: An administrator creates a new load evaluator in a Citrix XenApp farm. During routine
investigations the administrator discovers that one Citrix XenApp server is hosting nearly 50% more
sessions than any other Citrix XenApp server in the farm.
Which object can the administrator view to identify which load evaluators have been applied to each
server?
A. Log tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
B. Farm Properties in the Access Management Console
C. Server Properties in the Access Management Console
D. Contents tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
E. Usage reports tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1Y0-200
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NO.1 When using TLS to secure communication between the Web Interface Extension server and the
MetaFrame server farm, where is the root security certificate stored?
A. In the Web Interface Extension keystore.
B. In the Web Interface Extension database.
C. In the Web Interface Extension wwwroot folder.
D. In the Web Interface Extension registry settings.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The administrator for xxxx's server farm did not enable personalization at the ICA Customization page
of the Web Interface Admin tool.
Which statement is true?
A. The default settings for the Web Interface applications cannot be changed.
B. The settings for published applications cannot be changed by users through Program Neighborhood.
C. The settings for published applications configured at the Citrix Management Console will be used for
applications.
D. The default settings for Web Interface will be used until the user specified settings in the Web Interface
settings page.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which requirement must MetaFrame XP Servers meet to participate in a Web Interface environment?
A. The MetaFrame XP Servers must have applications published.
B. The MetaFrame XP Servers must have Feature Release 2 installed.
C. The MetaFrame XP Servers must have the NFuse 1.0 XML protocol installed.
D. The MetaFrame XP Servers must exist in the same domain as the Web Interface server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator has installed the Web Interface on a web server named °r esou r ce ¡± . D u r i n g i n sta l la t i o
of the Web Interface, he specified the MetaFrame XP server named ° HQApp ¡± w hi c h r e si de s in t
HQServe ± f a r m
To which URL should the administrator browse in order to verify that installation was successful?
A. http://resources/HQApps
B. http://HQApps/resources/Citrix
C. http://HQApps/Citrix/MetaFrame
D. http://resources/Citrx/MetaFrameXP
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which component of a Web Interface for MetaFrame XP deployment authenticates users?
A. Web server
B. MetaFrame XP server
C. Secure Gateway server
D. Secure Ticketing Authority
Answer: A

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NO.6 At xxxx.com NFuse Classic is deployed to provide internal and external users access to resources on 5
MetaFrame servers. The external users are located in remote offices on the 3.1.x.x subnet and have a
trusted partnership with the network. Internal users as well as NFuse Classic and the MetaFrame servers
are all located at the headquarters office on the 177.10.x.x subnet.
The requires result is to have all users connect to NFuse Classic using a public translated address
EXCEPT internal users who connect directly using the private IP address. Which two configurations
should
be used to produce the required result? (Choose two)
A. Set the default address translation setting to normal address.
B. Set the default address translation setting to translated address.
C. Select normal address and specify 3.1 in the Client Address Prefix field for thespecific address
translation settings.
D. Select translated address and specify 3.1 in the Client Address Prefix field for the specific address
translation settings.
E. Select normal address and specify 177.10 in the Client Address Prefix for the specific address
translation settings.
F. Select translated address and specify 177.10 in the Client Address Prefix field for the specific address
translation settings.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 The Web Interface for MetaFrame XP supports RSA SecureID integreation.
In order to use this authentication option with an implementation of the Web Interface, which file must be
copied from the ACE/Server to the Web Interface server?
A. ACL.EXE
B. NFUSE.CONF
C. SDCONF.REC
D. RSASEC.CONF
Answer: C

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NO.8 As network administrator at xxxx.com you are installing NFuse Classic on your Web server. NFuse
Classic will be configured to work with your MetaFrame XP for Windows server farm.
Which two must be specified when defining the Citrix Server settings? (Choose two)
A. TCP/IP port number used by IIS.
B. MetaFrame administrators credentials.
C. All server running the Citrix XML Service.
D. MetaFrame server running the Citrix XML Service.
E. TCP/IP port number used for the Citrix XML Service.
Answer: DE

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Exam Code: 1Y0-992
Exam Name: MetaFrame Presentation Server withFeature Release 3 Deployment and Support CCEAQandA
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Exam Code: 1Y1-A19
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration Exam
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NO.1 .Citrix licenses require an activation code.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Citrix Program Neighborhood works with the ICA Client for UNIX.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 .The ICA Client for 16-bit DOS works with version 3.3 or greater and supports DOS full screen mode.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Which three sections are included during the update of an answer file of a MetaFrame XP
Presentation Server? (Choose three.)
A. [MSDE Settings]
B. [Citrix XML Service]
C. [Feature Relcase 3]
D. [MetaFrame License Agreement]
E. [Published Application]
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 .Using Transparent Static Port Mapping, which clients cannot access a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. Web
B. UNIX
C. Win 16
D. WIN 32
E. Macintosh
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 .Which of the following does the ICA Passthrough not support?
A. COM port mapping
B. Clipboard mapping
C. Client drive mapping
D. Printer queue mapping
Answer: A

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NO.7 .MetaFrame for UNIX only supports the TCP\IP and IPX\SPX protocols.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is installed as part of the ICA client software?
A. Citrix Secure ICA
B. Citrix Remote Client Manager
C. Citrix Installation Manager
D. Citrix Remote Application Manager
Answer: D

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NO.1 Kelly has created two ad groups for her realty business in Ohio. In both ad groups, she's identified the
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ads?
A. Kelly should not have keywords competing against one another.
B. Kelly should merge all the ads into one campaign so that her ads will show up twice in search results.
C. By having two ad groups with the same keyword, Kelly may pay considerably more for her ads
because the ads will appear twice in search results.
D. Kelly should only have one ad group, not multiple groups.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You're reviewing a campaign you've created for your company with your manager. The manager is
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B. It's the maximum amount you'll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement.
Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
Answer: B

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NO.4 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
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his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
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the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +["Iron Man"]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. ("Iron Man")
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have created a report for you and your client, regarding several performance factors. You receive
an email asking you to download your report from the Report Center. Your report, as it turns out, is too big
for Google to email. What is the maximum size of reports in an email sent through Google?
A. 25MB
B. 2MB
C. 50MB
D. 66MB]
Answer: B

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NO.6 Steve is a web marketing consultant, and he's reviewing a client's Google AdWords. Steve is
interested in the keyword analysis field on the Keywords tab, in the client's campaign. When Steve looks
at the keywords quality score, he can determine how well the keyword is likely to perform.
What is the scale that Google displays the Quality Score?
A. Very high, Moderate, Low, Poor
B. Google does not reveal the Quality Score as it is proprietary information.
C. 1 to 100
D. 1 to 10
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have created several campaigns with Google AdWords for your clients. You are using the Manager
Defined Spend for your budgets in Google AdWords. When you create a new start date for a budget, what
requirement does Google have in regard to the new budget and existing budgets that you manage?
A. Managed account budgets must be approved by two parties before the ad will begin display.
B. Start dates for new budgets can't overlap with other budgets that may already be set up for the
managed account.
C. Managed account budgets cannot exceed $100 per day.
D. Managed account budgets can't start and end on the same day for more than three managed
accounts.
Answer: B

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clicks. The client reports that he thinks something is amiss with his account, and thinks someone has
changed the budget. How can Alice review any changes to the account and, if necessary, determine if
someone has made changes to the account's budget.?
A. Alice should use the Change History Tool.
B. Alice should use the AdWords API.
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NO.1 You have opened a template project and made various changes to it. Which is the most efficient way to
save it as a new template for future use?
A. Choose File > Save As, and replace the current project file
B. Choose File > Increment And Save to create a new copy
C. Choose File > Save a Copy as XML to create a new copy
D. Choose File > Save, and rename the filename using the .aet extension
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the command Composition > Pre render?
A. to render a RAM review of the composition
B. to render and save the RAM preview to disk
C. to render and create a Disk Cache preview of the composition
D. to addthe composition to the render queue with the Post Render Action set to Import and Replace
usage.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have been asked to render a sequence of frames in 32bpc. Which two formats allow you to do this?
(Choose two)
A. RLE
B. TIFF
C. JPEG
D. Targa
E. Cineon
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What happens when you insert a dynamically-liked composition into a Premiere Pro timeline, and play it
back within Premiere Pro?
A. You see a black frame until you render it or create a RAM preview inside After Effects.
B. Premiere Pro must render the linked composition before generatingreal-time playback
C. Premiere Pro can play back the comp in real-time, without the need to render it side After Effects.
D. After Effects renders the linked composition on a frame-by-frame basic during playback in Premiere
Pro.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You want to disable thumbnails in the Project in the Project panel to conserve system resource in a
large project. Which option in the After Effects Preferences dialog lets you complete this task?
A. General
B. Display
C. Previews
D. Appearance
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have imported a video clip of unknown size and duration. You have heighted the clip in the Project
panel. What should you do to create a composition that will automatically be the right size and duration?
A. choose File > Add Footage to Comp
B. choose Composition > New Composition
C. choose File > New Comp from Selection
D. choose Composition > Add to Render Queue
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements about importing native R3D (RED) files into After Effects are true? (Choose
two.)
A. The REDSource Settings color adjustments don't preserve overbright values.
B. R3D Files are interpreted as containing 32-bpc colors in a non-linear
C. Exposure can be manipulated only in the footage interpretation stage, in the RED R3D Source Settings
dialog box bar
D. The R3D pixelaspect ratio cannot be modified in the footage interpretation stage
E. Only half and quarter resolution are supported
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which two features are supported when you render a movie using the OpenGL render engine?
(Choose two.)
A. Layer Styles
B. 2D motion blur
C. Particle effects
D. Intersecting 3D layers
E. Shininess property settings for 3D layers
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 For which server technology is Remote Development Services (RDS) a component?
A. ASP
B. ColdFusion
C. JSP
D. PHP
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your company will be hosting your Website on a Web server within your department. You can access
the Web server from within your operating system. Which type of connection should you use to upload
files to the web server?
A. RDS
B. Local/Network
C. FTP
D. WebDAV
Answer: B

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NO.3 You upload an FLV file you are using on a Web page to your server. The movie does NOT play when the
page loads in the browser. What must be on the Web server in addition to the FLV file in order for the
movie to play?
A. The Flash player
B. A skin
C. A security certificate
D. A browser plug-in
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to move Web pages into subfolders within your root folder. Where should you go to move
these files into subfolders to ensure that all Website links remain intact after this process?
A. The Insert menu within Dreamweaver
B. The Web server
C. The operating system
D. The Files panel within Dreamweaver
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which action does NOT mitigate page weight?
A. Consolidating multiple CSS stylesheets into one.
B. Using nested tables instead of <div> elements.
C. Avoiding frame-based layouts.
D. Deleting excess whitespace from the code.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are using the Files panel. What happens when you drag an HTML file from the site root folder to a
subfolder in the same site?
A. The file is copied to the subfolder.
B. The file is moved to the subfolder.
C. The file is deleted from the site.
D. Nothing. You cannot drag files within the Files panel.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which panel or dialog box ensures that you will be prompted to add accessibility information as you
build your Web pages within Dreamweaver?
A. Dreamweaver Preferences
B. The Site Reports panel
C. The Tag Inspector panel
D. The Behaviors panel
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two technologies does AJAX combine.? (Choose two.)
A. ASP
B. Java
C. JavaScript
D. XML
E. XHTML
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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NO.2 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.3 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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NO.4 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.5 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.1 A device establishes connection against the BlackBerry environment by creating an
A. HTTP connection over Wi-Fi.
B. HTTP connection over Wi-Fi VPN, or IPPP .
C. SSL connection over Wi-Fi.
D. SSL connection over Wi-Fi, VPN, or IPPP .
Answer: D

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NO.2 The BlackBerry Administration Service does which of the following?
A. Provides a secure connection between the device and the server
B. Maintains a connection with the BlackBerry Infrastructure
C. Communicates commands, IT policies, and profiles to the device
D. Manages the user accounts and devices
Answer: D

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A. Perform a quick user search to find the user
B. Add the user to the Activation Password group
C. Assign the Activation Password Software Configuration to the user
D. Create a BlackBerry enabled user with an activation password
Answer: D

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NO.4 When searching for users with a specific software configuration assigned, the following
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corrective action to take?
A. The search modules threw an exception; log out and try the search again.
B. The search resulted in no matches; make sure search terms are valid and try again if the result
was unexpected.
C. The search was not able to connect to the configuration database to submit the search; verify
connectivity to the database server and try again.
D. The search module did not understand the criteria; make sure search terms are valid and try
again.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What administrative tasks can be performed using the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Option?
A. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device and assign a
new device to a user account.
B. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device, delete all
device data and deactivate a device and assign a new device to a user account.
C. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device, delete all
device data and deactivate a device, assign a new device to a user account, send a PIN message to
the administrator.
D. Setup an enterprise activation password and assign a new device to a user account.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A new user in the company would like to use BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager to activate
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A. Create a BlackBerry Enabled account for them on the server
B. Set a password for the user
C. Generate an Enterprise Activation password
D. Create a BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager password for the user
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three components are used to contact a device?
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B. BlackBerry Router, BlackBerry Management Web Service, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher, BlackBerry Enterprise Management Web Service, and BlackBerry Web
Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher, BlackBerry Administration Service, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 What functions are available when a device has been enrolled under the BlackBerry Protect
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A. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or Wipe Device
B. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or change BBID password
C. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Rename Device, or Lock Device
D. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or change the device PIN
Answer: A

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