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Exam Code: Maya12_A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script.?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. Blend shape deformers let you change the shape of one object into the shapes of other objects.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a brush
Answer: B

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NO.3 The ViewCube is an on-screen 3D navigation element that does which of the following?
A. Creates a multicamera rig to navigate through your scene
B. Provides feedback about stereo cameras and performs calculations to produce anaglyph images
C. Enables you to quickly and easily switch between views.
D. Provides feedback about the current camera view in relation to the 3D scene
E. Both C and D
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following is a way to control deformations using a Smooth Bind?
A. Add Influence
B. Flexors.
C. Projection Box.
D. Both A and B
Answer: B

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NO.5 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 140-420
Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
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Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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Exam Code: SD0-101
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Analyst Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.3 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.6 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.9 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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NO.10 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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NO.13 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.15 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.17 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.19 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.20 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.23 Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.24 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.26 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.27 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BCP-421
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Maintaining a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
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Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which two of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions for IBM Lotus Domino can be
upgraded to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. 2.2.7 SP7
B. 4.0 SP5
C. 4.0 SP7
D. 4.1 SP1
E. 4.1 SP2
F. 4.1 SP3
Answer: C,F

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NO.2 Which three types of authentication methods are available for BlackBerry device users to log in to
BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Microsoft SQL Server Authentication
C. Domino Mailbox
D. Active Directory
E. IBM Lotus Notes ID
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 When performing a wireless enterprise activation, where does the activation email message come from
that is delivered to the user mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher
C. Organizations firewall
D. BlackBerry Infrastructure
E. Wireless service providers network
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed remotely or
configured to run separately from the original instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose
three.)
A. BlackBerryRouter Service
B. BlackBerry Policy Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Attachment Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which task must be running on a target IBM Lotus Domino server in order to support IBM Lotus Notes
links? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. BlackBerry Router
C. Adminp
D. Agent Manager
E. HTTP
Answer: E

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NO.6 At which two levels can organizer data synchronization field mappings be modified? (Choose two.)
A. User level
B. Server level
C. Group level
D. Domain level
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which three of the following steps should a system administrator perform when a BlackBerry device
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A. Ensure desktop email application is configured to work with the server copy of the address book
B. Ensure the user is enabled for wireless address book synchronization
C. Ensure the user does not have any IT policies applied that would prevent wireless
synchronization
D. Ensure the user is able to browse using the BlackBerry Browser
E. Ensure the user is able to synchronize calendar appointments wirelessly
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following is the default port number that the BlackBerry Monitoring Service Trap Listener
will bind to? (Choose one.)Which of the following is the default port number that the BlackBerry
Monitoring Service? Trap Listener will bind to? (Choose one.)
A. 152
B. 142
C. 162
D. 125
E. 110
Answer: C

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NO.9 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.10 Which three of the following are pre-requisites for PGP encryption to be implemented in the BlackBerry
Enterprise Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Set the PGP Universal Server Address IT policy rule in the IT policy that you assign to
BlackBerry device users.
B. Instruct users to install the PGP Support Package for BlackBerry devices on their BlackBerry devices.
C. Instruct users to install the BlackBerry Security Package tool.
D. Instruct users to enroll with PGP when their BlackBerry devices prompt them to.
E. Wirelessly regenerate encryption keys from the BlackBerry device.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 What credentials are required to perform a wireless enterprise activation of Wi-Fi enabled BlackBerry
devices over a Wi-Fi connection? (Choose one.)
A. Activation server address, e-mail address and password
B. E-mail address and password
C. Activation server address
D. Activation server address and password
E. Activation server address and e-mail address
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which three of the following incomplete enterprise activation states can be tracked using the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose three.)
A. Ongoing
B. Pending
C. Password Set
D. Failed
E. Password Not Set
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Which three of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components could a system
administrator use to successfully perform a wired enterprise activation? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
E. BlackBerry OTASL
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 Assuming that the BlackBerry Monitoring Service is installed separately on its own server, on which
two locations would the system administrator need to install the SNMP Service in order for the BlackBerry
Monitoring Service to receive SNMP trap data from all the BlackBerry Enterprise Server components?
(Choose two.)
A. The server that hosts the BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. The server that hosts each remote BlackBerry Enterprise Server component
C. The server that hosts the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The server that host the BlackBerry Monitoring Service and BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The server that hosts each remote BlackBerry component and the BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Where would a system administrator configure BlackBerry Alert Service notifications? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service Application Console
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three of the following policies are the default application control policies? (Choose three.)
A. Default Optional
B. Standard Required
C. Default Recommended
D. Standard Optional
E. Default Disallowed
F. Standard Disallowed
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.17 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.18 In the BlackBerry Monitoring Service, which three of the following formats can be used to format a
generated report? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .pdf
C. .csv
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.19 A system administrator wants to install BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 into an
environment. Which two versions of IBM Lotus Domino are supported for this type of installation?
(Choose two.)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 6.55
D. 7
E. 8
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Which toolscan a system administrator use to move a BlackBerry device user between two instances
of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two.)
A. BESUserAdminClient
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
E. EAStatus
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: 005-002
Exam Name: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part I)
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NO.1 Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A. Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B. Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C. Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D. Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A. It loads data files into tables.
B. It can load files only on the server host.
C. It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D. It can load files both on the client and server host.
E. It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32 characters.
Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A. VARCHAR
B. CHAR
C. TEXT
D. Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Answer: B

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NO.4 Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database? If not,
why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = 'INFORMATION_SCHEMA'
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A. Yes.
B. No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C. No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D. No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A. It can dump data only on remote servers.
B. It can dump data only on the local server.
C. It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes why table locking is often not desirable compared to page or row
locking?
A. Table locks can have deadlocks.
B. Table locks create concurrency issues.
C. Table locks prevent other clients from making any changes to the table until released.
D. Table locks can cause data corruption issues if more than one client tries to make changes while
locked.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true?
A. InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B. MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C. InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D. MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E. InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
F. MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Answer: ACE

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NO.9 Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A. Create and Drop databases
B. Ping the server
C. Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D. Shutdown the server.
E. Create users.
F. Display replication server status.
Answer: ACEF

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NO.10 The ANALYZE TABLE command should be used...
A. When you need to find out why a query is taking a long time to execute.
B. To improve performance by updating index distribution statistics.
C. After large amounts of table data have changed.
D. To check a tables structure to see if it may have been damaged and needs repair.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A. It is used to cache row data in open tables
B. It holds file descriptors for open tables
C. The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D. Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E. There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F. Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open simultaneously
Answer: BEF

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NO.12 Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = 'world'
AND table_name = 'Country'
What would be the result of executing this query?
A. An error would be issued
B. A warning would be issued
C. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table Country
would be dropped from the world database
D. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the world
database would be unaffected.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
--with-charset=latin1 --with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the following
statements is/are true?
A. The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be installed on
disk.
B. The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by the
server.
C. The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened when the
server is started.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for MEMORY
tables?
A. HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
B. BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators
such as = and <=>
C. BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
D. HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators such
as = and <=>
Answer: AB

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NO.16 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by
it's own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true regarding the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It uses multiversioning to isolate transactions.
B. It is not possible for deadlocks to occur.
C. It does not isolate transactions.
D. It is possible for deadlocks to occur.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A. It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B. It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C. Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D. SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific command.
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true regarding table locks?
A. They can only be released by the client holding them.
B. They can be released by other connections than the client holding them.
C. They are implicitly released when the connection is closed.
D. They are not released when the connection is closed
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which of the following correctly defines dirty reads, non-repeatable reads and phantom row?
A. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
B. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of its uncommitted changes.
C. A non-repeatable read occurs when a transaction performs the same retreival twice but gets a different
result each time.
D. A non-repeatable read is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
E. A phantom is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
F. A phantom is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
Answer: ACE

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NO.21 Which of the following actions are performed during an RPM installation of the MySQL server
package?
A. Setup a mysql user
B. Setup a mysql group
C. Initialize the data directory
D. Setup passwords for all default accounts.
Answer: ABC

MYSQL   005-002   005-002

NO.22 Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should...
A. generally never be run manually
B. be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C. be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D. be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be read during
query execution
E. be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
Answer: DE

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NO.23 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

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NO.24 What are some properties of using LOCK TABLE?
A. Less work is required by the server to acquire and release locks.
B. It can only be used with the MyISAM storage engine.
C. Using LOCK TABLE sometimes decreases the amount disk reads and writes needed for a group of
statements.
D. All tables must be locked in a single statement.
E. It creates more disk activity.
Answer: ACD

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NO.25 Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by yourself?
A. They are highly optimized.
B. They are cross-platform.
C. Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely available
compilers.
D. They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E. They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Answer: ACE

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NO.26 Another user has issued the statement LOCK TABLE pets FOR WRITE
You can...
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. Update and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.27 mysqldump can be instructed to include commands to drop and recreate tables before trying to create
or load data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following are requirements for MyISAM binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
D. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
Answer: CD

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NO.29 Suppose you have a server that has been started with the --myisam-recover option. When does the
server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A. Each time the server is started.
B. Each time it encounters an error.
C. Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D. Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following steps should be taken to restore an InnoDB table to a consistent state without
having to shutdown the server?
A. Run the REPAIR TABLE command.
B. Dump the table with mysqldump, drop the table then re-create from the dump file.
C. Run the CHECK TABLE command.
D. Dump the table with mysqlhotcopy, drop the table then re-create with the backup file.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 010-002
Exam Name: MYSQL (Certified MySQL Associate (English))
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 The default database contains a table called City. Which of the following statements may be executed
to obtain a statement that could be used to (re-)create the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DESCRIBE City
B. DESCRIBE TABLE City
C. SHOW TABLE City
D. SHOW CREATE TABLE City
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the SQL WHERE clause?
In SQL statements, the WHERE clause specifies ...
Select the best response.
A. the tables from which data is to be retrieved.
B. a condition to filter for only specific rows.
C. a condition to filter for only specific groups defined by a GROUP BY clause.
D. a number to limit the number of rows that is operated upon by the statement.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements can be used to list all databases that are accessible to the current
user?
Select the best response.
A. LIST DATABASES
B. SHOW DATABASES
C. DISPLAY DATABASES
D. VIEW DATABASES
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement can be used to list all columns in the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DISPLAY COLUMNS FROM City
B. SHOW COLUMNS FROM City
C. SHOW COLUMNS LIKE 'City'
D. SHOW City COLUMNS
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the context of database transactions, the atomicity property guarantees that...
Select the best response.
A. during a transaction, rows are processed one at a time.
B. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are immediately committed.
C. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are committed or rolled back as one unit.
D. other transactions cannot see the changes made in other ongoing uncommitted transactions.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A MySQL table has ...
Select the best response.
A. zero or more columns, and zero or more rows.
B. zero or more columns, and one or more rows.
C. one or more columns, and zero or more rows.
D. one or more columns, and one or more rows.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The table Country contains the following rows:
+--------------------------+------------+
| Name | Population |
+--------------------------+------------+
| Nauru | 12000 |
| Turks and Caicos Islands | 17000 |
| Tuvalu | 12000 |
| Wallis and Futuna | 15000 |
+--------------------------+------------+
Which of the following statements will return all rows in the table, sorted by the value in the Population
column?
Select the best response.
A. SELECT Name, Population ASC
FROM Country
B. SELECT Name, ORDER BY Population
FROM Country
C. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
GROUP BY Population ASC
D. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
ORDER BY Population
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which part of a SELECT statement specifies the tables from which data is to be retrieved?
Select the best response.
A. The SELECT list.
B. The FROM clause.
C. The WHERE clause.
D. The LIMIT clause.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements will discard the existing database called world?
Select the best response.
A. DELETE DATABASE world
B. DROP DATABASE world
C. REMOVE DATABASE world
D. TRUNCATE DATABASE world
Answer: B

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NO.10 A table is successfully created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE numbers (
double_number double,
decimal_number decimal(2,1)
)
One row is successfully inserted into the numbers table. At this point, the table contains the following
data:
+---------------+----------------+
| double_number | decimal_number |
+---------------+----------------+
| 1.5 | 2.5 |
+---------------+----------------+
The row is updated by executing the following statement:
UPDATE numbers
SET double_number = double_number + 0.25,
decimal_number = decimal_number + 0.01
Which values are now stored in the double_number and decimal_number columns of the updated row?
Select the best response.
A. 1.8 and 2.5
B. 1.75 and 2.5
C. 1.8 and 2.51
D. 1.75 and 2.51
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_TAW12_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 334 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

C_TAW12_70 (SAP Certified Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.0) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/C_TAW12_70.html

NO.1 Mark the valid usage of Read stement(More than one answer is correct)
A.DO. Read Line SY-INDEX. ENDDO
B.Read Line 3 of Current Page
C.Read Line 3 of Next Page
D.Read Current Line of table IB
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 In what case are bstrips good candidates?(More than one answer is correct)
A.When Users need the ability to navigate freely between components
B.When Navigation between components is predetermined in a fixed manner
C.When several components of an application need to be displayed on one screen
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 Your screen has a table control defined to it. In the PAI, what does the SY-LOOPC system variatable
conin?
A.Number of table control lines
B.Loop Counter
C.Number of filled lines
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is true about calling a screen (More than one answer is correct)
A.A screen can be called from within a function module
B.Screens should be called from PBO modules
C.Screens can be called from PAI modules
D.A screen can be called from a report program
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.5 If you do not SUPPRESS DIALOG in a dynpro before you LEAVE TO LIST-PROCESSING, the following
Mill happen (More than one answer is correct)
A.The screen will be displayed with the report that was built, but the gui-stus will be the one fromo the
previous screen
B.The report will be displayed on the screen only after the user presses the enter key
C.The previous screen (calling screen) will be redisplayed
D.The screen will be displayed, and will be empty
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 Which of the following types of enhancements do not need to be assigned to an enhancement project?
(More than one answer is correct)
A.Keyword
B.Field exit
C.Menu exit
D.Screen
E.Program exit
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 If you are building a bstrip to be handled at the presention level. What function type should be
assigned to the b title?
A.P
B.T
C.Blank
D.F
E.E
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 What does the DESCRIBE TABLE stement provide to the program?
A.Access Type
B.Key Definition
C.Key Uniqueness
D.Key length
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where does information come from when you press F1 on a screen field?
A.Da element documention
B.Domain short text
C.Search help
D.Domain Help values
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have issued a Set Title bar in the PBO of your screen, Hon long Will the title remain active?
A.Until the Next screen change
B.Until the next Set TitleBar stement
C.Until the next DB Luw
Answer: B

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NO.11 A screen field has been dynamically changed in a dialog program. When does it get re-initialized?
A.At the end of the transaction
B.Only when the program encounters more code to modify the field attributes
C.At PAI execution
D.At PBO execution
Answer: D

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NO.12 What object is not supported by the Modification assisnt?
A.User exits
B.Text Elements
C.Functions
D.Menus
Answer: A

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NO.13 How does a customer benefit by using SSCR?
A.To log enhancements made by a development user
B.To log Customizing made by a development user
C.To log modifications made by a development user
Answer: C

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NO.14 Identify the situation Where Append Structures are not allowed.
(More than one answer is correct)
A.If the last field has a domain of da type curr
B.If the last field is already an Append Structure
C.If the table conins a field of da type LCHR or LRAW
D.If the table is a pooled or cluster table
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 What is true about a logical dabase program?
A.Any Node that is accessed requires the Node to be defined in the NODES stement
B.The Put Stement in the LDB provides da for the Get Event in the report program
C.Get Event in the report program requests da from the Put Stement
D.You can access hierarchically higher tables in your program even though there is no table stement for
the table
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following methods require higher Maintenance when new releases of SAP are installed?
A.Enhancements to the SAP Sndard
B.Append Structures
C.Customizing
D.Modifications to the SAP Sndard
Answer: D

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NO.17 Mark the three system fields that are continuously mainined by the list
(More than one answer is correct)
A.SY-LINSZ
B.SY-TITLE
C.SY-LINNO
D.SY-COLNO
E.SY-PAGNO
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.18 Which transaction is used to make dictionary adjustments when upgrading versions of SAP?
A.SPAU
B.SP01
C.SPDD
D.CMOD
Answer: C

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NO.19 In PBO, what field conins the tol number of lines in table control tc_flight
A.TC_FLIGHT_LINES
B.SY-DYNNR
C.SY-STEPL
D.TC_FLIGHT-TOL_LINES
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is true about the following code?
A.The Module Validate is processed if both FLIGHT and CARRID are other than the initial value
B.The Module Validate is processed if at least one of the fields FLIGHT or CARRID are other than the
initial value
C.The Module Validate is processed only if both FLIGHT and CARRID are initial values
D.The Module Validate is never processed
Answer: B

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NO.21 If the program has SRT-OF-SELECTION event and you program stement between the REPORT
stement and the first event keyword or form stement, the stement are than included with which processing
block
A.SRT-OF-SELECTION
B.END-OF-SELECTION
C.Initialization
D.No Processing Block
Answer: A

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NO.22 Identify the different type categories in the ABAP dictionary (More than one answer is correct)
A.table Types
B.Da Models
C.Structures
D.Da definitions
E.Da Elements
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.23 On what line does the output AAAA
appear in the following code?
A.9
B.2
C.1
D.10
Answer: B

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NO.24 What message type does not implicitly trigger dabase commits for the table updates specified in your
program?
A.I type MESSAGE stement
B.A type MESSAGE stement
C.E type MESSAGE stement
D.W type MESSAGE stement
E.S type MESSAGE stement
Answer: B

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NO.25 Makr the valid asynchronous update bunding technique.
A.UPDATE
B.CALL FUNCTION.. .. IN UPDATE SK
C.PERFORM ASYNCHRONOUS
D.PERFORM.. .. ON COMMIT
Answer: B

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NO.26 Mark the Program Attribute that is used to define a Dialogue Program?
A.R
B.D
C.1
D.M
Answer: D

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NO.27 What is needed to ensure a check field is verified against the referred key field of the check table?
A.same da type only is required for check field and referenced field
B.all key fields MUST have domain equality between check table and foreign key table
C.same domain is required for check field and referenced field
D.same da element is required for check field and referenced field
Answer: C

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NO.28 What type of memory is typically used as default values for screen fields?
A.SAP memory
B.ABAP/4 memory
C.Shared Memory
Answer: A

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NO.29 What is conined in the system variatable sy-Linsz?
A.Row count of the current line
B.Height of the current line
C.Width of the current line
D.Size of vertical bars in your list
Answer: C

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NO.30 What controls the dialogue behavior of a search help?(More than one answer is correct)
A.Admin da
B.DPOS
C.SPOS
D.LPOS
E.Value Range
Answer: C, D

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