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Exam Code: A2040-923
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration
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Last Update: 2014-08-31

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Exam Code: C2040-840
Exam Name: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Configuring Domino Web Servers
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Exam Code: A2040-406
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration A
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NO.1 Certain clients utilizing WebDAV attempt to lock WebDAV items. Where is esign
locking?enabled for
WebDAV?Certain clients utilizing WebDAV attempt to lock WebDAV items. Where is ?esign
locking?enabled for WebDAV?
A. The Global Web settings document
B. The server configuration document in the Domino Directory
C. The Web Site document that is specified for the WebDAV domain
D. The Design tab of the Database Properties dialog box for each WebDAV database
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have created substitution rules on your Domino Web server. However, you failed
to include at least
one wildcard anywhere in the rule. What is the result of this action.?
A. Domino will send the user to the default home page for the Web server.
B. The Domino Web server will ignore the request from the browser session.
C. The user will receive an error code defined by the administrator in this rule.
D. The HTTP task automatically appends "/*" to the pattern when it stores the rule in its
internal table.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following statements regarding the Certificate Authority (CA) is true?
A. The CA issues only Internet certificates.
B. Access to the certifier ID must be granted.
C. The CA issues both Lotus Notes and Internet certificates.
D. Access to a certifier ID password must be provided to all registration authorities.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Karen wants to customize the data that is being transmitted to a HTTP browser
request to improve the
performance of browser caching. What type of Web rule would she create?
A. Directory
B. Redirection
C. Substitution
D. HTTP Response Header
Answer: D

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NO.5 Open, inactive sessions can prevent users from accessing the server. What time limit
can be set so
inactive sessions do not remain open with the Domino server?
A. CGI timeout
B. Output timeout
C. Request timeout
D. Persistent connection timeout
Answer: D

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NO.6 Margaret has edited the Web Site configuration document to enable users to see the
realm "Sales" in
the authentication dialog. Which of the following fields were modified?
A. Description
B. Directory or file path
C. Realm name returned to browser
D. Realm label returned to browser
Answer: D

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NO.7 Response header rules have been placed on your Domino Web server. When are
these rules applied
to URL requests?
A. After substitution rules
B. Before redirection rules
C. Concurrent with global rules
D. Sequentially behind document redirection
Answer: A

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NO.8 A user sends a search request to Server A, but some of the search results are actually
located in a
database on Server B. What must be configured for Server A to generate the HTML for the
search results
page to point to Server B?
A. The earch results URL?field in the server documentThe ?earch results URL?field in the
server
document
B. The earch results URL?field in the domain documentThe ?earch results URL?field in the
domain
document
C. The enerating references to the Web server?field in the server documentThe ?enerating
references to
the Web server?field in the server document
D. The enerating references to the Web server?field in the domain documentThe ?enerating
references to
the Web server?field in the domain document
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Assessment: InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0
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Exam Code: C2010-598
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Administration
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NO.1 Which file is updated when the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server stops?
A.errpt.out
B.dsierror.out
C.dsmserv.err
D.dsmerror.out
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about policy sets? (Choose two.)
A.A policy set must be activated before use.
B.Only one policy set is allowed in one policy domain.
C.A policy set can only contain one management class.
D.There are several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is default at a time.
E.There can be several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is active at a time.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which command copies active backup files from a primary pool to an active data pool?
A.COPY STGPOOL <primary_poolname> <copy_poolname>
B.COPY ACTIVEDATA <primary_poolname> <copy_poolname>
C.COPY STGPOOL <priniary_poolname> <active-data_poolname>
D.COPY ACTIVEDATA <primary_poolname> <active-data_poolname>
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command is issued to set up one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server as the
source for configuration information for other servers?
A.set configmanager on
B.set server enterprise
C.define path configmanager
D.define server configmanager
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two components need to be installed in order to use LAN-free with IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3? (Choose two.)
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for LAN-free on the client
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Storage Agent on the client
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive client on the client
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Administration Center on the server
E.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks on the server
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about a journal-based backup? (Choose two.)
A.It is supported for HP clients.
B.It is available for supported Windows clients.
C.It is a method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the Open Sources journal
service
process.
D.It is a method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the Microsoft Windows journal
service process.
E.It is an alternate method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the IBM Tivoli
Storage
Manager V6.3 journal service process.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HC-611
Exam Name: Huawei Certified Network Associate - Building the Structure of Storage Network (HCNA-BSSN)
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Exam Code: H13-622
Exam Name: HCNP Storage CBDS (Constructing Big Data Storage)
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NO.1 In performance optimization of the N8500 clustered NAS storage systems, which of the
following issues must the maintenance personnel be aware of concerning LUNs and controllers?
(Select 3 answers)
A. Create only one LUN for each RAID group.
B. Set LUNs to forcible write back without mirroring.
C. Ensure that the owning controller and the working controller of a LUN are the same.
D. Disks that compose a file system are evenly distributed on controllers.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 The flexible space of the OceanStor 9000 is attributed to the scale-out architecture, scalability
from 3 to 288 nodes, and support for global namespace.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which command is used to monitor the CPU usage in performance optimization of the
N8500 clustered NAS storage systems?
A. sar -u 3 3
B. sar -r 3 3
C. sar -n DEV 2 2
D. sar -n CPU 2 2
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about the VCS services and resources provided by a
clustered NAS system are correct? (Select 3 answers)
A. A dependency relationship between service groups can be defined.
B. A dependency relationship between resources can be defined,
C. Each resource corresponds to one agent.
D. Resource dependency relationships can be defined in a cyclic manner.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 When configuring file systems for the N8500 clustered NAS storage systems, you are advised
to configure a file system size not larger than 32 TB and the size of small-file storage applications
not larger than 16 TB to achieve satisfactory reliability and data recovery speed. (The small files
here refer to the files with an average size of 1 MB.)
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.6 A NAS storage system is dedicated to storing and managing which of the following data types?
A. Block data
B. File data
C. Object data
D. Consecutive data blocks
Answer: B

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NO.7 The CIFS sharing of the OceanStor 9000 supports local user authentication and AD domain
user authentication.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has purchased an N8500 clustered NAS storage system configured with SATA and
NL-5AS disks. In order to strike a balance between RAID reliability and read/write performance,
which of the following configuration plans is recommended?
A. 11-disk RAID 5 and one hot spare disk
B. 11-disk RAID 6 and one hot spare disk
C. 4-diskRAID10
D. 9-disk RAID 5
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B97
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Exam Code: HP5-Z01D
Exam Name: Delta - Selling HP Networking Solutions
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NO.1 Which statement about uniform toner particles with equal additive distribution is true?
A. It is a feature in all mono toners to provide maximum yield.
B. It is part of the pay-for-print solution.
C. It is a feature of the HP Recycling program.
D. It is a feature provided with the colorsphere toner.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which technology leads to faster first-page-out times on HP LaserJet devices?
A. HP Instant-on Fuser
B. HP Edgeline technology
C. HP Web Jetadmin
D. HP ColorSphere toner
Answer: A

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NO.3 What did Barilla gain by using HP original supplies?
A. total output growth of 31%
B. reduction of 31% in total cost of ownership
C. increased network speeds for monitoring supplies
D. 97% more high quality pages on their color laser printers
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the target market for the individual ink Officejet Pro cartridges?
A. customers with very high workgroup print needs that require Web Jetadmin manageability
B. customers who need maximum flexibility for color cartridge yields
C. customers with high individual print usage who need low operating costs
D. customers who need professional and manageable colors for proof printing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which technology combines the functionality of a variety of devices in one space-saving
device?
A. Copier technology
B. New LaserJet product naming
C. All-in-One print cartridges
D. HP Multi Function Printers
Answer: D

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NO.6 An HP print head can fire over how many drops per second?
A. 3 hundred
B. 30 thousand
C. 30 million
D. 30 trillion
Answer: C

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NO.7 Why are discounts usually given on hardware?
A. The most current workgroup printers need a low price.
B. The most current MFPs need discounts the most.
C. Discounts generate a desire for the hardware.
D. The most current retail inkjet devices start with a low price anyway.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Why has there been an increase in the use of color printing in business? (Select two.)
A. Color printing is cheaper than monochrome printing.
B. There have been reductions in the cost of color printing.
C. Businesses are less concerned about their printing costs.
D. Fewer monochrome printers are available.
E. There are proven benefits to using color in documents.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: HP5-B02D
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Exam Code: HP2-N46
Exam Name: Selling HP Automation and Cloud Management Software Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-B109
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NO.1 What is the correct value proposition for the HP Software Database and Middleware
Automation solution?
A. monitors administrative tasks such as provisioning, compliance, patching, and release
management associated with databases and application servers
B. reduces downtime and mean time to repair (MTTR) through root-cause analysis that maintains
accuracy for databases and application servers
C. prevents unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
D. delivers industry-standard best practices to address challenges around compliance, middleware,
and database patching, and code release
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6274ENW.pdf(page 3, first para)

NO.2 Which HP CloudSystem Enterprise Starter Suite value best resonates with the persona involved
in Transforming Service Delivery?
A. upgrades a CloudSystem Enterprise system to a CloudSystem Matrix environment
B. helps you visualize, optimize, and plan performance in virtualized and cloud environments
C. provides a self-service portal in order to deliver services from multiple providers
D. enables comprehensive patching of physical and virtual farms
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is true about the HP Server Automation Premium Edition solution?
A. provides automatic tracking of storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
B. consolidates and correlates server fault and performance events across the entire physical and
virtual IT infrastructure
C. integrates server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to
troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
D. offers a lower-cost solution that simplifies the setup and reduces the time needed to manage the
physical and virtual servers in a data center
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6486ENW.pdf(page 1, executive
summary, first para)

NO.4 Which specific challenge is faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software
Cloud Service Automation solution?
A. inability to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution time
B. procurement by the line-of-business of external Public Cloud services that are not directly under
the control of corporate IT
C. no system to track storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
D. need to fix vulnerabilities on network devices using an integrated security alert service
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which key customer persona is most likely involved in Automation and Cloud Management
buying decisions?
A. CIO
B. system administrator
C. CTO
D. CSO
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Task Automation challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by HP Server
Automation Premium Edition? (Select two.)
A. How can I improve time-to-value in the provisioning of application development environments?
B. How can I pre-empt problems before they cause an outage?
C. How do I guarantee my service desk tickets are prioritized?
D. How can I distribute security updates (patches) in my environment in an agile and reliable
manner?
E. How can I better monitor security breaches?
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which HP Cloud Service Automation value best resonates with the persona involved in
Transforming Service Delivery?
A. offers a repeatable,scalable, automatable way to manage technical policy and reusable services
B. consolidates and correlates fault and performance events across the entire physical and virtual IT
infrastructure
C. provides an extensible, enterprise-grade, service lifecycle management system
D. automates tasks and processes in the data center using workflows that help IT teams execute
change with greater speed, quality, reliability, and consistency
Answer: D

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A. Is there anyone else in the organization that is able to make that type of buying decision?
B. Can you afford to continue with existing inefficiencies and broken processes?
C. We can help you offset that cost by reducing head-count
D. We can reduce your OPEX by making your IT staff more efficient in managing routine day-to-day
tasks.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-005
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Exam Code: EX0-002
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NO.1 Which is an objective of the quality review technique?
A. To identify a product's quality criteria
B. To provide assurance that the project is being conducted properly
C. To assess that a product conforms to set criteria
D. To ensure that staff are properly trained in the quality methods
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the first task of product-based planning?
A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
B. Write the Project Product Description
C. Identify dependencies
D. Create the product breakdown structure
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is the purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to baselined products
B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products
C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
D. Assess and control uncertainty
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which may be funded from a risk budget?
A. Corrections due to off-specifications
B. Impact analysis of requests for change
C. Implementation of a fallback plan
D. Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy
Answer: C

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NO.5 How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D

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NO.6 If an informal issue is defined as a problem or concern, where should it first be recorded?
A. Issue Register
B. Risk Register
C. Daily Log
D. Exception Report
Answer: C

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NO.7 When considering risks, which describes an opportunity in a project?
A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following refers to the actions identified to bring a situation to a level where
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A. Risk category
B. Risk description
C. Risk response
D. Risk status
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2010-538
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation
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NO.1 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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7. Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the
agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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8. An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types
started: 2AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be
monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: M2140-664
Exam Name: IBM Rational Enterprise Modernization Sales Mastery Test v2
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NO.1 What are the core Rational products in the IBM Integrated Solution for System z Development
Accelerator?
A. Rational Requirements Composer, Rational Team Concert, Rational Quality Manager, Rational
Developer for System z.
B. DOORS, Rhapsody, Rational Team Concert, ISPF.
C. Rational Software Architect, ClearQuest, ClearCase, Rational Insight.
D. Rational Developer for z, Rational Team Concert, Rational Asset Analyzer, Rational Development
and Test Environment for System z.
Answer: D

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Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/software/rational/integrated/systemz-development/ (overview,
7 t 10th bulleted points)

NO.2 What Rational Products can be used together to provide a comprehensive Application
Portfolio Management solution?
A. Rational Team Concert, Rational Software Architect, and Rational Focal Point.
B. Rational Rhapsody, Rational Developer for z, and Rational Insight.
C. Rational Focal Point, Rational Asset Analyzer and Rational System Architect.
D. Rational Quality Manager, Rational Team Concert, and Rational Requirements Composer.
Answer: C

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Reference: http://www-142.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/category/SWY20 (see all products
application portfolio management)

NO.3 Clients can improve current applications by taking advantage of new architectures and
technologies. What other key IT resource can be leveraged as part of an enterprise modernization
project?
A. Reviewing challenges against client objectives to generate a list of best practices.
B. The process that helps business leaders identify industry trends.
C. The domain and systems knowledge of long time IT professionals.
D. Composite analysis testing and runtime analysis testing.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Jazz technology platform and tools can be used on projects that span different platforms
and different languages. It can be used to unify development organizations through
_______________.
A. a flexible application foundation framework
B. an integrated network infrastructure
C. a certified professional enterprise roadmap
D. a common team infrastructure and common developer toolset
Answer: A

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Reference: https://jazz.net/products/jazz-foundation/ (Collaboration and integration across the
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NO.5 What is one of the most common business reasons we hear from Power and System z
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A. The need to transform IT from a cost to a value center.
B. Plan to begin developing complex systems on intelligent devices.
C. To ensure regulatory compliance through automated audit trails.
D. The need to manage and monitor their product portfolio as investments.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P2170-037
Exam Name: IBM i2 Text Chart Support Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2180-401
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 and Liberty Profile, System Administration
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Exam Code: C2180-278
Exam Name: IBM Worklight V6.0 Mobile Application Development
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NO.1 What is not available in the workspace summary?
A. A count of the number of entities and links in the workspace
B. The template on which the workspace is based
C. The total time the workspace has been open
D. The date and time when the workspace is created
E. The date and time when the workspace was last printed.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When setting general application options (Using the tools menu, select options to
display the options; then select options\general), which of the following is NOT an option?
A. Enable time of day, day of week
B. Turn on auto save options
C. Turn on automatic searching for items on a target list
D. Change the highlight color of search results or the error text color
E. Turn on hyperlink detection
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is TRUE of Text Chart Auto Mark?
A. Text Chart Auto Mark automatically imports data into iBase
B. Text Chart Auto Mark facilitates the mark up process by automatically locating key entities in
documents so that you can quickly add them to a chart
C. Text Chart Auto Mark can be used with pattern tracer to detect phone numbers
D. Text Chart Auto Mark Is used to detect vehicle registrations to automatically create and mark-up
vehicle entities
Answer: B

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NO.4 The template report does not list/contain information on which of the following?
A. Pallettes
B. Entity types
C. Link types
D. Attributes
E. Attribute Slot Markers
Answer: A

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NO.5 A workspace can contain many documents. How many charts can it contain?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. An unlimited number
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2060-237
Exam Name: IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1 (000-M237)
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Exam Code: A2010-656
Exam Name: Assess: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Service Request Management Implementation
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NO.1 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which two calendar types are available to be used with
Service Level Agreements in the Service Level Agreement application? (Choose two.)
A. Time Calendar
B. Custom Calendar
C. Frequency Calendar
D. Applies To Calendar
E. Calculation Calendar
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 If a response plan is applied to an existing work order, which two fields will be overwritten on
the work order by the response plan if defined? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. Vendor
C. Customer
D. Owner Group
E. Service Group
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 What is the purpose of selecting the Known Error check box?
A. It copies the problem summary and details to a new Bulletin Board Message for all users to see.
B. It enables the New Row button on the Related Records tab so additional records can be linked to
the problem.
C. It adds the problem to the collection of known errors that service desk agents use to provide
quick resolution to related problems.
D. It removes the current problem from the list being worked by a problem analyst because it is
already being worked with another record.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two methods to place a new Service Request (SR) under a Service Level Agreement
(SLAy? (Choose two.)
A. The SLA is applied with an action within a workflow.
B. Click the Apply SLA action from the Select Action menu.
C. A ticket template includes a SLAt0 be applied to the SR.
D. A SLA is defined as part of the classification used on the SR.
E. The self-service user selects a valid SLA when creating a new SR.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which statement is true about escalation activation for
a specific Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. An escalation can be activated if its validation fails.
B. When the status of a SLA is changed, the associated escalation changes status automatically.
C. When the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action is used to activate the escalation, the associated
SLA changes status.
D. When an escalation is created for an active SLA, the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action must
be used to activate the escalation.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Under what circumstance should an incident be made global by checking the Global Incident
check box?
A. when an incident is related to a problem
B. when the Affected By person is a Very Important Person
C. when an incident affects many users or causes other issues
D. when an incident needs to be managed by teams in different countries
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Weight field is used in the calculation of which option when working with questions for
surveys?
A. survey reports
B. user responses
C. question ratings
D. ordering the questions in a survey
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Key Performance Indicator is included with the Service Catalog content?
A. Catalog Orders in Approval
B. Service Catalog Waiting for Approval
C. Catalog Orders in Waiting for Approval
D. Service Catalog Service Requests Waiting for Approval
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2020-703
Exam Name: IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator
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Exam Code: P2090-050
Exam Name: IBM PureData System for Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2040-923
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration
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NO.1 Which two TM1 Objects are potential data sources for a TurboIntegrator process?
(Choose two.)
A. Rule File
B. Dimension Subset
C. Cube View
D. Application Folder
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Support has requested that the customer increase the logging in their tm1s-
log.properties file.
Where is this file found.?
A. In the same directory as the tm1 install
B. In the same directory as the web.config file
C. In the same directory as thetm1s.cfg file
D. In the same directoryasthetm1p.ini file
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer will be using TM1 Applications and wants to integrate with their current BI
server for
authentication.
Which security mode setting should they set in their tm1s.cfg file for the
IntegratedSecuirtyMode
parameter?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: A

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NO.4 In TurboIntegrator, what is used to pull data from a relational database (e.g., Oracle)?
A. Text
B. ODBC
C. ODBO
D. IBM Cognos TM1 View
Answer: B

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NO.5 You run a T1 process that imports data into a TM1 cube from a .csv file. The process
completes with a
message "Process completed successfully", however when you check the Target Cube, the
cube shows
all zeros.
Which log file would you review?
A. tm1s.log
B. tm1server.log
C. tm1web.log
D. tm1-log.properties
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are three features of the TM1 Operations Console? (Choose three.)
A. Adding new groups
B. Monitoring multiple TM1 servers
C. Scheduled logging to monitor activity offline
D. Instant feedback on the current state of servers
E. Saving data to disks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Your organization has security restrictions that prohibits the installation of software on
end-user
workstations.
Which two TM1 user interfaces would be acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Cognos Insight
B. TM1 Web
C. TM1 Performance Modeler
D. TM1 Application Web
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You want to deploy a new application using dimension calculations in Performance
Modeler. The
application will be deployed in distributed mode.
Which two configuration parameters should be applied? (Choose two.)
A. PersistentFeeders=T
B. AllowSeparateNandCRules=T
C. DistributedPlanningOutputDir=.\tunit
D. LoggingDirectory=. . \log
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: C2010-023
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes
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NO.1 Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A.Latest test fixes released by development.
B.Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C.Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D.List of new features still under development for each product.
E.Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer:C E

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NO.2 When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best
search
strategy for finding targeted information?
A.Select just one product and only one keyword.
B.Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C.Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D.Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Where can the most thorough searches on support be performed?
A.anywhere with a search dialog
B.top header of any IBM.com web page
C.always from a specific product support page
D.IBM Software Support Home page IBM.com/software/support
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which two statements are true regarding Support Provider Level 1 Customer Support?
(Choose
two.)
A.Level 1 Support is responsible for taking the first support call from a Customer (during
normal business
hours, Monday - Friday in line with IBMs standard 5x8 support).
B.Level 1 Support is responsible for testing new software versions of IBM products and
communicating
the release of said software to clients that have purchased it from IBM.
C.Level 1 Support is responsible for incorporating and testing any program fix provided by
Level 3
Support (as appropriate), and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass,
circumvention,
or other notice of restriction to the End User.
D.Level 1 Support is responsible logging all calls in an electronic call management system
capable of
opening an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in
electronic format
historic information relating to a problem, from the first Call through to the resolution of the
problem.
E.Level 1 Support is responsible for logging all calls in an XML, Excel or Lotus 123 spread
sheet so that
Level 2 support can open an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and
can report in
electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first call through to the
resolution of
the problem.
Answer:C D

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NO.5 What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A.Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B.Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C.Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D.Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E.Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider's engineer to obtain access to an end
users account.
Answer:C E

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