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Exam Code: Hp2-B29
Exam Name: Consulting on HP PrintingSolutions
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Exam Code: HP3-C02
Exam Name: HP Color Laserjet CP6015 and CM6040 MFP Service Qualification
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Exam Code: HP0-090
Exam Name: HP-UX Virtual Server Environment
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NO.1 What advantages do the CM6040f/30f bundles have over the base models.? (Select two.)
A. The f bundles have more RAM.
B. The f bundles have an analog fax.
C. The f bundles have a color display.
D. The f bundles have two extra input trays.
Answer: B, E

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NO.2 Which CP6015 Series printer includes a hard drive?
A. CP6015x
B. CP6015xh
C. CP6015dn
D. CP6015de
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of staple jobs accepted, within one job request, by the Stapler/Stacker
Output Bins?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Q01
Exam Name: Servicing HP Desktops, Workstations, and Notebooks
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Exam Code: HP3-X12
Exam Name: HP Retail Point of Sales Solutions
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NO.1 .What is an adequate ESD precaution?
A. Touch a metallic portion of the case to establish ground
B. Plug the computer into a power outlet
C. Put on a grounded wrist strap
D. Carry electronic parts in a plastic bag
Answer: C

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NO.2 .You are performing a service call to replace a failed hard disk drive in a factory. Water form the
factory's manufacturing process has cover the hard disk drive. How does this environmental condition
affect the system warranty?
A. The warranty does not cover damage due to environmental conditions
B. An accidental damage warranty must be purchase after damage occurs
C. The warranty is unaffected by environmental issues
D. Environmental issues void warranty of diskette drives, mice and keyboards only
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Your customer indicates that Windows in not recognizing their MultiBay hard disk drive. What can be
done first to isolate this problem?
A. Set the MultiBay hard disk drive as a slave
B. Reinstal the factory image
C. MultiBay is not an HP supported configuration
D. Reseat the MultiBay hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Where would you confirm a spare part number?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. device manager
C. HP parts library
D. Windows Control Panel
Answer: A

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NO.5 .You upgrade the BIOS to the current version. Customers logs in and discover that a specific software
application does not work.
A. Downgrade the BIOS to the previous version
B. Contact HP for a replacement system board
C. Contact HP for a replace BIOS chip
D. Upgrade the affected software application
Answer: A

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NO.6 .Windows XP computer stops responding during startup. How could you isolate the cause with
minimal impact to the customer?
A. Replace the hard drive
B. Restore the factory image
C. Examine the win.ini file
D. Enable boot logging
Answer: D

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NO.7 .Where can the embedded SATA RAID be configured on desktops and workstations?
A. with controller configuration software
B. in the embedded controller BIOS
C. in the system BIOS
D. F12 RAID configuration
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Your customer's computer reboots with no warning. What should you try first to help isolate this?
(Select two)
A. Replace the system board and test
B. Remove any third party hardware
C. Check system event log
D. Restore the unit and reinstall
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP0-D09
Exam Name: Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions
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Exam Code: HP3-X08
Exam Name: Servicing HP Elite Desktop Products
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NO.1 .Which elements are required for building a disaster recovery solution using HP Matrix OE, if HP
BladeSystem and HP EVA are already installed? (Select three.)
A. HP Insight Recovery Management
B. HP Application Recovery Manager
C. HP Business Copy EVA
D. HP Replication Solutions Manager EVA
E. HP Continuous Access EVA
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.2 You add new server blades to chassis managed by Matrix OE. What can you use to perform initial
deployment of VMware hypervisor hosts?
A. IO templates
B. IO servers
C. Insight Control deployment jobs
D. VMware vCenter templates
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Which HP product delivers scale out, excellent performance, and a modular storage infrastructure?
A. HP EVA 6400
B. HP P410i
C. HP P2000 MSA
D. HP X9000
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Which tool can you use to configure a shared data store for VMware hypervisor cluster?
A. VMware vCenter server
B. VMware hypervisor host profile
C. IO storage pool entry
D. Insight Control for VMware vCenter server
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which tool is appropriate to use to forecast workload memory utilization for future provisioning?
A. HP Software Operations Orchestration
B. HP Matrix OE Capacity Planning
C. HP Insight Installation Advisor
D. HP System Management Home Page
Answer: B

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NO.6 A current multi-enclosure Virtual Connect (VC) domain contains four BladeSystem enclosures cabled
together for a single VC domain. An additional BladeSystem enclosure needs to be added to the
environment.What will provide an optimized and fault tolerant configuration with room for future
expansion?
A. adding the additional BladeSystem enclosure to the current VC domain and configuring in Virtual
Connect Manager
B. creating a secondary VC domain with the new BladeSystem enclosure and configuring in Virtual
Connect SmartStart Manager
C. splitting the current VC domain into two separate VC domains and adding the new BladeSystem
enclosure into one of the newly created VC domains
D. adding the additional BladeSystem enclosure to the current VC domain and upgrading to Virtual
Connect Enterprise Manager to manage more enclosures in the domain
Answer: C

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NO.7 .In a BladeSystem Matrix environment, your logical servers are running low on usable storage capacity.
What can you do on the HP StorageWorks EVA4400 SAN array that was attached to the matrix enclosure?
(Select two.)
A. Add additional disk drives and disk enclosure if needed.
B. Change the disk failure protection level to double on the EVA4400.
C. Group new disk drives into the existing disk group.
D. Increase the storage raw capacity by joining two or more units of EVA4400 with the MPX200 router.
E. Change the vRAID level of the virtual disk from level 5 to level 1.
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 What can enabling "iLO event pass-thru" for event monitoring do?
A. increase workload for the iLO
B. enable iLO event collection by the OS of the server
C. duplicate the events generated for a server
D. enable OA to collect all iLO events in a single log
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B61
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Technical
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Exam Code: HP0-S15
Exam Name: Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise
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NO.1 What integrates with the System Management Homepage to enable network administrators to
maintain detailed server inventory and track historical configuration changes?
A.Version Control Agents (VCA)
B.HP Insight Diagnostics Online
C.Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
D.Open Services Event Manager (OSEM)
Correct:B

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NO.2 What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade
p-class architecture?
A.Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B.Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232 connection
method.
C.Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D.Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.
Correct:D

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NO.3 What benefit is provided from a fault-tolerant system?
A.99.99% availability
B.maximum availability regardless of the circumstances
C.clustering with failover processes and application monitoring
D.component level redundancy, with a limited percentage of downtime
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which management protocol is used by the Onboard Administrator for BladeSystem c-Class to
send event notifications for thresholds and faults to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.eXtended Management Layer (XML) protocol
B.Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:D

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NO.5 The following questions are asked during which part of the planning cycle? What is the
expected availability of the new solution? What is the projected role of the new server? What kind
of system management tools are required?
A.site survey
B.scope of work
C.needs analysis
D.implementation timeline
Correct:C

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NO.6 E-commerce sites are an example of which implementation?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which application requires 100% uptime, where unavailability can have catastrophic business
impact?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:A

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NO.8 What is used to secure access to the System Management Homepage? (Select two.)
A.IP restriction
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.web-based secured login
D.SNMP community names
E.multiple login authentications
Correct:A C

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HH0-330 Study Guide, HH0-400 Test Answers, HH0-130 Real Questions

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Exam Code: HH0-330
Exam Name: HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise
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Exam Code: HH0-400
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity
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Exam Code: HH0-130
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Storage Fondations
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NO.1 A HUS VM customer requires a tool set to gather and report on application service level
objectives
and storage performance. Which package should the customer use?
A. HUS VM Virtual Partition Manager Package
B. HUS VM Analytics Package
C. HUS VM Mobility Package
D. HUS VM Local Protection Package
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer would like to deploy a new HUS system with Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP).
They would like to control the amount of over provisioning from their HDP Pools by not allowing
more DP-Vols to be created beyond a certain percentage. Which over-provisioning threshold can
an administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Early Alert
B. Warning
C. Limit
D. Depletion Alert
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two advantages of TrueCopy Extended Distance replication? (Choose two.)
A. It has no data loss.
B. It provides extended de-duplication.
C. It provides write order integrity.
D. It provides consistency group support.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Your customer has purchased Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) to support their Service
Level Agreement targets. HTSM will be used to migrate data between their VSP and HUS
systems. Which type of migration will be performed?
A. non-disruptive volume migration based on conditions
B. dynamic file migration based on conditions
C. non-disruptive file level migration based on conditions
D. dynamic "page" level migration based on I/O load
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company has purchased a HUS VM storage system and they want to connect it to their
existing
AIX and Windows servers. Which HUS VM feature will allow these hosts to co-exist on the same
CHB ports?
A. Port Aggregation
B. Shared Memory Paths
C. High Speed Port Mode
D. Host Group
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-End Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What are two valid Hitachi Data Ingestor (HDI) configuration options? (Choose two.)
A. as a single node
B. as a n+1 cluster
C. as a VMware appliance
D. as a Hyper-V appliance
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Your customer wants to connect a HUS system to a VSP as external storage. What are two valid
options to connect both storage systems? (Choose two.)
A. direct connection
B. FC SAN connection
C. connection using iSCSI
D. connection using FCoE
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true regarding Session-based antispam techniques?
A. The entire mail content is inspected.
B. They are enabled in the session profile only.
C. SMTP commands, sender domain and IP address are checked.
D. They are checked after application-based antispam techniques.
Answer: C

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7. A FortiMail administrator must enforce the following company policy:
1. All emails containing executable attachments must be detected.
2. This detection must be file name independent. For example, if a user renames an executable
from .exe to .txt, the file should still be detected.
Which FortiMail inspection technique should the administrator apply?
A. Content profile > Attachment filtering rule to block all executable extensions
B. Content profile > File Type filtering rule to block all executable files
C. Antispam profile > Banned Word entry to block all executable files
D. Content profile > Content Monitor entry to block all executable files
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following FortiMail profile types apply to IP-based policies only?
A. Session profile
B. Content profile
C. IP pool
D. Antispam profile
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following back-end servers can NOT be used to provide Recipient Verification?
A. LDAP servers
B. POP3 servers
C. RADIUS servers
D. SMTP servers
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?
A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent
Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the recommended procedure to identify emails encoded in a specific charset?
A. Configure a Dictionary profile entry and associate it to the content profile section Content
Monitor and Filtering.
B. Create a banned word entry in an Antispam profile.
C. Charset encoding cannot be detected.
D. Enable Heuristic Scanning in an Antivirus profile.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How can a FortiMail administrator view or search archived emails?
A. through POP3, IMAP or Web-based manager
B. through POP3 and IMAP
C. through Webmail only
D. through Web-based manager only
Answer: A

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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the result of applying the above to an audio clip?(Select the best answer.)
A. The lowest dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
B. The average dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
C. The peak dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want to output an HDV sequence to HDV tape. Which output option should you select?(Select the
best answer.)
A. Edit to Tape
B. Print to Video
C. QuickTime Movie
D. QuickTime Conversion
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Video Filters category contains the Broadcast Safe filter?(Select the best answer.)
A. Channel
B. Color Correction
C. Image Control
D. QuickTime
E. Video
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does the visual indicator (overlay) at the bottom-left of the Canvas represent?(Select the best
answer.)
A. The first frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
B. The last frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
C. End of a Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which clip would be adjusted if you dragged left?(Select the best answer.)
A. Clip in Track V1
B. Clip in Track V2
C. Clip in Track V3
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which tab displays a clip's Opacity parameter?(Select the best answer.)
A. Video
B. Controls
C. Filters
D. Motion
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a standard audio CD's sample rate?(Select the best answer.)
A. 24 kHz
B. 32 kHz
C. 44.1 kHz
D. 48 kHz
Answer: C

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NO.8 Where are Voice Over tool recordings saved?(Select the best answer.)
A. Audio Renders
B. Autosave Vault
C. Capture Scratch
D. Render Files
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the recommended topology setting for the Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card?
A.Automatic
B.Point-to-point
C.Arbitrated loop
D.Switched fabric
Correct:A

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NO.2 When naming an Xsan volume, which TWO statements are true? (Choose TWO.)
A.Any low-ASCII character can be used.
B.Only letters and numbers can be used.
C.Only lowercase letters and numbers can be used.
D.Only uppercase letters and numbers can be used.
E.Volume names can be up to 16 characters in length.
F.Volume names can be up to 70 characters in length.
G.Volume names can be up to 256 characters in length.
Correct:B F

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NO.3 Xsan is a _______ file system.
A.local
B.cluster
C.network
D.distributed
Correct:B

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NO.4 Within a storage pool, Xsan stripes data over _______.
A.LUNs
B.volumes
C.disks
D.affinities
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which application allows you to monitor the status of disks within Xserve RAID LUNs?
A.Activity Monitor
B.Disk Utility
C.RAID Admin
D.Xsan Admin
Correct:C

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NO.6 Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop addresses use only the _________ field of Fabric Address Space.
A.Area
B.Domain
C.Loop
D.Port
Correct:D

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NO.7 Indicate the correct port settings when you configure an Emulex 355 switch for Xsan.
A.Host machine ports set as "Initiator with Stealth" and storage device ports set as "Target with Stealth."
B.Host machine ports set as "Target with Stealth" and storage device ports set as "Initiator with Stealth."
C.Both host machine ports and storage device ports set as "Initiator with Stealth."
D.Both host machine ports and storage device ports set as "Target with Stealth."
Correct:A

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NO.8 To view the WWPNs for an Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card, use __________.
A.Xsan Admin
B.Fibre Channel Utility
C.RAID Utility
D.cvadmin
Correct:B

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NO.1 What is an SLA? (Choose two)
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter
across a provider's network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer
traffic across the provider's network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their
traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement
within the provider's network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing
them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet's source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet's DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.1 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Lending for 3 months and borrowing for 6 months creates a 3x6 forward-forward deposit. The cost of that
deposit is called:
A.Break-even rate
B.Implied forward rate
C.Forward-forward rate
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.2 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Taking collateral to hedge the credit risk on a counterparty means that you have:
A.Eliminated credit risk
B.Eliminated market risk
C.Taken a guarantee from the issuer of the collateral
D.Taken on market, legal and operational risks
ANSWER: d

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NO.3 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
You have done the following deals in spot USD/JPY:
Sold USD 5.0 million at 130.60
Bought USD 3.5 million at 130.20
Bought USD 2.0 million at 130.50
Sold USD 2.0 million at 130.55
What is your net position and average rate?
A.Short USD 1.5 million at 130.46
B.Long USD 1.5 million at 130.46
C.Short USD 1.5 million at 131.60
D.Long USD 1.5 million at 131.60
ANSWER: c

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NO.4 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Prior to expiration, an in-the-money option has:
A.Intrinsic value but no time value
B.Time value but no intrinsic value
C.Both time value and intrinsic value
D.Neither time value nor intrinsic value
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Four banks provide you with quotes in CHF/SEK. Which is the best price for you to buy SEK?
A.5.5825
B.5.5820
C.5.5815
D.5.5830
ANSWER: d

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NO.6 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following will tend to have the higher yield?
A.Treasury bill
B.Repo against Treasury bill collateral
C.They have the same yield
D.Cannot say
ANSWER: b

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NO.7 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If a counterparty's name is not acceptable to a lending bank, that bank:
A.Can revise the rate according to his credit position for the counterparty.
B.Should not revise the rate.
C.Can revise the rate but only with the consent of senior management.
D.Can revise the rate according to the credit rating of the counterparty
ANSWER: b

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NO.8 These are all the pirctures which this dumps will use. When you meet the questions, you can refer to
them by yourself.
A
B
C
D
E
F

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NO.1 What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?
A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view
Answer: A

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NO.2 In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management
Unit (MMU)?
A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR
Answer: B

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12. A simple method of measuring the performance of an application is to record the execution
time using the clock on the wall or a wristwatch.
When is this method INAPPROPRIATE?
A. When executing the software using a simulation model
B. When the processor is a Cortex-R4
C. When instruction tracing is enabled
D. When the processor is not executing instructions from cache
Answer: A

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NO.3 Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?
A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code
Answer: A

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NO.4 A simple system comprises of the following memory map:
Flash - 0x0 to 0x7FFF
RAM - 0x10000 to 0X17FFF
When conforming to the ABI, which of the following is a suitable initial value for the stack pointer?
A. Top address of RAM (0x18000)
B. Top address of flash (0x8000)
C. Bottom address of RAM (0x10000)
D. Bottom address of flash (0x0000)
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a Cortex-A9 processor, when the Memory Management Unit (MMU) is disabled, which of
the following statements is TRUE? (VA is the virtual address and PA is the physical address)
A. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions and data are not cached
B. VA! = PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
C. VA == PA; Address translations take place; data may be cached but not instructions
D. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
Answer: D

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NO.6 When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct
about the values stored in R15?
A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined
Answer: B

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NO.7 A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The
performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options
is a possible explanation?
A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC), when an interrupt is requested, but is not yet being
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A. Inactive
B. Active
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Answer: C

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NO.1 What interfaces can you use during the step Define Action when setting up a BPF?
A. Manage Books, BPC Web, BPC for Word
B. BPC Administration, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
C. Data Audit, BPC for Excel, BPC for PowerPoint
D. Journal, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
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A. Warnings
B. Nothing
C. Crashes
D. Errors
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NO.3 How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC?
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B. Via Business Rules
C. Via Distributor and Collector
D. Via Audit
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NO.4 What value is used in the destination flow column of the currency conversion business rule when there
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A. Same as in the destination account column
B. Same as in the source account rate type column
C. Same as in the source flow column
D. Same as in the formula column
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NO.5 What tasks can be done using the Web Administration?
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B. Activating but not deactivating auditing
C. Adjusting the version number of a report template
D. Setting up file types
Answer: C,D

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B. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, do not reverse sign
C. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, reverse sign
D. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, reverse sign
Answer: B

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NO.7 What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application
B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records
C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube
D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube
E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for NetWeaver.?
A. Save the Excel workbook locally.
B. Enable comments in the Application parameters.
C. Assign a keyword.
D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Who determines the maintenance renewal strategy when a Partner has previously sold a maintenance
agreement to a non Global / US Named Account? (Choose two.)
A.The Avaya Direct team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
B.The Avaya Telesales team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
C.The end-user customer.
D.The Partner owns the maintenance renewal strategy, which may include a Channel Service Agreement,
Partner Support Service / Joint Service Delivery, or Wholesale Maintenance.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 A business process consists of a set of steps that an organization typically uses to execute daily
business and is _____.
A.measurable using Key Process Indicators
B.measurable using Key Performance Indicators
C.measurable using Key Process Instances
D.measurable using Key Primary Indicators
Answer:A

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NO.3 Partners selling to Global Accounts at the Avaya Direct Account Team's invitation must sell which of the
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A.Avaya Services only
B.Avaya products only
C.Avaya content for both products and services where Avaya has an applicable offer
D.Any products or services they choose
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which are the three basic functions of the Communication Manager Software?
A.PBX functionality, Contact Center functionality, Mobility Server
B.PBX functionality, Mobility Server, IP Softphone
C.Mobility Server, Contact Center functionality, DoS Protection Server
D.Contact Center functionality, PBX functionality, SIP Enablement
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which enterprise is defined by having over 1000 users, mulitple locations, are often multinational, and
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A.Very-small-sized
B.Small-sized
C.Mid-sized
D.Large-sized
Answer:D

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NO.6 Avaya will have direct resources assigned for primary coverage for which two of the following account
types? (Choose two.)
A.Non Global / US Named
B.US Named
C.Global
D.All account types
Answer:B C

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NO.7 SIP is a key enabler of intelligent communications because it allows for monitoring of _____.
A.presence
B.metrics
C.call volume
D.process
Answer:A

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NO.8 A key capability of Avaya's IP Telephony solutions is to extend customer announcements, voicemail
greetings, and other applications from the core to the branches, enabling _____.
A.a higher TCO
B.branch office managers to maintain and administer their own communications systems
C.consistent user experiences
D.each user to have a different, customized experience
Answer:C

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