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NO.1 When backing up SharePoint Server data using the CA ARCserve Backup Agent for Microsoft
SharePoint, how is the backup initiated?
A. SharePoint Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
B. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to SharePoint Server.
C. CA ARCserve Backup Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
D. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to CA ARCserve Backup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement about Restore by Image is TRUE?
A. It is included in all CA ARCserve Backup r16 modules.
B. The Restore by Image sessions can be restored to network drives.
C. During a Restore by Image session, files can be open but they are still overwritten.
D. Selecting multiple sources is only permitted when using the Restore to Original Location option.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Some application programs can cache file writes on the workstation on which they are run.
How
can you prevent resulting data integrity issues when using the Agent for Open Files?
A. Disable retry mechanisms in your backup program.
B. Enable Extended Features in the Agent for Open Files.
C. Configure the application, if possible, to prevent write caching.
D. Enable Auto Sense in the Sync Method section of the Agent for Open Files.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can you limit the servers that are authorized to perform backups on a Windows client
agent
object?
A. Configure password security.
B. Set the Backup Priority to High.
C. Generate an access control list (ACL).
D. Change the port number used by the agent.
Answer: C

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NO.5 To enable enhanced User Profile Manager, role management, and Windows account support,
on
the primary server, you need to install the CA ARCserve Backup:
A. Standard module.
B. Advanced module.
C. Enterprise module.
D. Enterprise Plus module.
Answer: C

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NO.6 After you complete the Diagnostic Wizard in the CA ARCserve Backup Diagnostic Utility, a file
is
created. In which GUI do you view this file?
A. Report Manager
B. Job Status Manager
C. Diagnostic Log Manager
D. Diagnostic Report Manager
Answer: D

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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.1 The two types of Global Collections in CA Spectrum are:
A. Public and private.
B. Static and dynamic.
C. Simple and complex.
D. Out-of-the-box and custom.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you want to import or export preferences from another user or group, you must have the privilege to
access the:
A. Users tab.
B. Groups tab.
C. Privileges tab.
D. Information tab.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is located in the partslist directory and contains the instructions that processed uses to start and
manage a specific process.?
A. IDB Files
B. server.xml
C. Proxy model
D. SystemEDGE agent
Answer: A

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NO.4 In the Contents pane of the OneClick Console, which tab displays a high-level schematic diagram of the
network as it is modeled?
A. List
B. Locater
C. Explorer
D. Topology
Answer: D

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NO.5 When you create a custom search in the OneClick Console, the Matches Pattern comparison type is
available for text attributes. How do you specify the attribute value for this comparison type?
A. Variables or clauses
B. Community strings or operators
C. Stored procedures or algorithms
D. Wildcards or regular expressions
Answer: D

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NO.1 You can configure CA Introscope ErrorDetector to ignore certain errors by editing which file?
A. errors.pbd
B. ErrorDetector.profile
C. IntroscopeAgent.profile
D. IntroscopeEnterpriseManager.profile
Answer: A

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NO.2 The preferred scripting language for developing Environment Performance Agent (EPA) plugins is:
A. Perl
B. Python
C. JavaScript
D. Shell script
Answer: C

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NO.3 Significant changes were introduced for CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) version 5.0. A
new CA CEM server deployment model is:
A. software only
B. v5.0 appliance only
C. legacy appliance only
D. virtual appliance only
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer?
(Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 You are viewing a dashboard that displays data from 10 different Agents. You want to isolate and view
data from three Agents, which you suspect may be affected by a problem. What must you do to enable
this?
A. Activate the Console Lens feature
B. Activate the Historical Query feature and select multiple time periods
C. Select the Show Module and Domain names with Dashboard Name option
D. Create multiple copies of Dashboards, each one designed to show data from a different Agent
Answer: A

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NO.6 When you create metric groupings in the Investigator, you specify the data you want the metric
grouping to display, using regular expression language from Perl 5 in the metric grouping Agent
Expressions and Metric Expressions fields. A fully qualified metric name of a metric in a Resource looks
like this:
Acme|c1737019-a|AcmeUSA|AcmeWest|GC Heap:BytesIn Use
In this example, what does AcmeWest represent?
A. Domain
B. Process
C. Resource
D. Agent name
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the name of the .jar file containing the CLW.?
A. CLW.jar
B. CLWorkstation.jar
C. CommandLine.jar
D. CommandLineWorkstation.jar
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which file should you create to change certain default CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)
settings, such as baseline duration?
A. Web.xml
B. TESS -default. Properties
C. EM-baseline.properties
D. TESS-customer.properties
Answer: A

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NO.9 If you want to limit an Event Database search to error events only, which query should you use?
A. type:normal
B. type:sampled
C. type:errorsnapshot
D. type:whatsinteresting
Answer: C

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NO.10 In the Dashboard Editor, the palette consists of static content tools and:
A. Data viewers
B. View creators
C. Data view creators
D. Dynamic content tools
Answer: A

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NO.11 An element that is a logical grouping of metrics treated as a single element is known as a:
A. Report
B. Calculator
C. Dashboard
D. Metric Grouping
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statements about HTTP sessions are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Only large objects, such as shopping carts should be stored in the session object.
B. Each HTTPSession object has a parameter that you can set to specify the session timeout value.
C. If users do not log out of the HTTP session, the object remains in memory until a timeout is reached.
D. Data structures created to support HTTP sessions cannot be reclaimed by the garbage collector (GC).
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 CA Introscope ChangeDetector configuration properties are stored in: A. Change-detector.xml
B. IntroscopeAgent.properties
C. ChangeDetector-config.xml
D. ChangeDetector-properties.xml
Answer: C

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NO.14 Each element in a report template maps to a single:
A. Metric
B. PDF file
C. Dashboard
D. Metric grouping
Answer: A

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NO.15 You want to configure the list of keys that identify URL Groups in this agent. Which configuration
parameter will enable you to do this?
A. introscope.agent.urlgroup.keys
B. introscope.autoprobe.directivesFile
C. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.format
D. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.pathprefix
Answer: D

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NO.16 A group of business transactions in a CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domain is known as
a:
A. business service
B. business transaction
C. transaction parameter
D. transaction component
Answer: A

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NO.17 In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after
an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile
file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports Metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD
files.
Answer: B

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NO.18 While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine
whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation
feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D

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NO.19 Deleting a management module:
A. Removes the associated jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager.
B. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager and makes no
changes to the file.
C. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but copies it to a
folder named MM_old.
D. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but renames it by
appending the suffix?.inactive?.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A summary alert notification includes: (Choose three)
A. time stamps
B. transaction traces
C. a summary alert name
D. the current state of the summary alert
E. details of the user-defined time period for checking the current state of each underlying simple alert
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.21 CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET
Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for
collecting this data?
A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which step do you need to perform before you install CA Introscope ChangeDetector?
A. Stop all Enterprise Managers in your system.
B. Verify that you are using CA Introscope 9.0 or newer.
C. Set the ChangeDetector properties in IntroscopeAgent.profile.
D. Identify the <agent_home>, <Introscope_home>, and <Workstation_home> directories for CA
Introscope.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which metrics are MOST suitable for building alerts? (Choose three)
A. Stall Count
B. Errors Per Interval
C. Responses Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
E. Average Response Time (ms)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.24 Summary alert S is made up of single alerts 1, 2, and 3. Currently, the states of the alerts are as
follows: Alert 1: caution
Alert 2: caution
Alert 3: danger
What is the color of alert S?
A. Red
B. White
C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: A

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NO.25 You need an instruction in your Probe Builder Directive (PBD) to skip monitoring of all get() methods in
a given Tracer Group. Which command will do this?
A. SkipClass
B. SkipClassForFlag
C. SkipMethodForFlag
D. SkipMethodForClass
Answer: A

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NO.26 When default metrics are generated during application execution, the probes:
A. Retain data until agents collect it.
B. Report data directly to the Enterprise Manager.
C. Report data to agents, which in turn pass it to the Enterprise Manager.
D. Report data to agents, which retain it until the Enterprise Manager collects it.
Answer: C

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NO.27 You have decided that it is unnecessary to show socket-level metrics in your system and want to
disable the SocketTracing tracer group. Which command will enable you to do this?
A. TurnOff: SocketTracing
B. //TurnOn: SocketTracing
C. --TurnOn: SocketTracing
D. #TurnOn: SocketTracing
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which type of file stores all items contained in a management module?
A. Zip
B. Package (PKG)
C. Java Archive (JAR)
D. Tape archive (TAR)
Answer: C

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NO.29 What is the Metric name in this Metric path?
H04|VVAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
A. H04
B. Servlets
C. Stall Count
D. WAS_Node
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which metric type measures the number of incomplete requests during a time interval?
A. Stall Count
B. Instance counts
C. Errors Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
Answer: D

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NO.31 CA Introscopy holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

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NO.32 Which statement about the Historical Query Viewer is TRUE?
A. It can be used to view errors from a command line.
B. It is a web-based alternative to the Live Error Viewer.
C. It can be used to open XML files containing error data.
D. It is a free open source utility that users without CA Introscope can use to view error data produced by
CA Introscope.
Answer: C

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NO.33 For reporting purposes, data from Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) is aggregated daily. By default,
this occurs at:
A. noon
B. 9:00 AM
C. 3:00 AM
D. midnight
Answer: D

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NO.34 You want to set up CA Introscopy so that users are always using the most up-to-date version of the
client. Which mechanism enables you to do this?
A. WebView
B. Workstation
C. Transaction Tracer
D. Web Start Workstation
Answer: D

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NO.35 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.36 Which statement about tracer groups is TRUE?
A. They are defined in XML files.
B. You can activate component tracing at the class level only.
C. After you activate component tracing, you need to restart the Enterprise Manager.
D. Agent performance can be improved by modifying the default metric set to monitor only the necessary
classes.
Answer: D

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NO.37 What must you configure for the Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM) to see network traffic sent by a web
server?
A. A full transaction
B. The monitor interface
C. The IP address of the web server
D. The requesting user s login credentials
Answer: A

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NO.38 CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) records specific client transactions and never stores
private parameters. An example of a private parameter is a:
A. Password
B. client name
C. transaction name
D. transaction signature
Answer: A

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NO.39 In CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM), the name of the file used for local authentication is:
A. users.xml
B. passwd.xml
C. security.xml
D. authenticate.xml
Answer: B

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NO.40 Which graph displays the most information within a single view?
A. Dashboard
B. Box-Whisker
C. Defect Pareto
D. Standard Deviation
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-221
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NO.1 To access the server page that lists the XML Open Gateway (XOG) invoke action web services,
you specify the following URL:
http://<servername:port>/niku/wsdl/InvokeAction
Which types of invoke action web services are listed here? (Choose three)
A. Process
B. Flush cache
C. Aggregate data
D. Productivity data
E. Synchronize external links
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 The creation of a grid portlet requires a data provider. Data providers can be: (Choose three)
A. Filters
B. Events
C. Objects
D. Systems
E. NSQL queries
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 Which feature characterizes NSQL multi-dimensional queries?
A. The data provider is always an object.
B. The related portlets have a Y-axis subpage.
C. They enable more complex charts such as Donut charts.
D. They always include change_key and merge_key attributes.
Answer: B

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you
need to consider? (Choose three)
A. The export will always be Fit to Page.
B. The Export to PDF option must be selected.
C. The Export to PowerPoint option will only permit 30 records.
D. The dashboard template must be Application Page Template.
E. The dashboard type must be Page with Tabs or Page without Tabs.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. The CA Clarity PPM bundle includes CA Business Intelligence (CABI) software. Which features
characterize CABI? (Choose three)
A. Support for cached content
B. Component-based content development
C. A built-in INSolve Functional Intelligence QuickStart Pack
D. An InfoView Business Relationship Manager (BRM) module for complex report design
E. A built-in paging mechanism to help ensure the scalable delivery of large volumes of content
Answer: A,B,E

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8. Before saving a Generic Execution Language (GEL) script in a process, it is recommended that
you:
A. Validate the GEL script
B. Remove all FTP Library tags
C. Delete all namespace declarations
D. Test the GEL script in a duplicate process
Answer: D

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9. Which technology is Generic Execution Language (GEL) based on?
A. Oracle Java
B. CA Clarity PPM
C. Apache Jakarta Jelly
D. SAP Business Objects
Answer: C

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10. Out of the box, which object actions can you create in CA Clarity PPM v13? (Choose three)
A. Run a stock report
B. Link to Google search
C. Delete an active service
D. Run the Delete Investments job
E. Move tasks across or between projects
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 In the CA Clarity PPM Process Engines event flow, what is the function of the Wakeup Signal?
A. Displays detailed Process Engines instance information
B. Triggers the Background Engine as soon an event is fired
C. Keeps track of all the executing process, controls the event flow, and helps manage the
Workflow Execution
D. Interacts with the CA Clarity PPM database on a consistent basis to proceed with the workflow
steps or instructions
Answer: B

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NO.5 CA Clarity PPM v13 portlets
A. Can use an object, a system, or a query as a data provider.
B. Use multiple dimensions if created using an object data provider.
C. Include restricted portlets, such as the Action Item portlet, which only administrators can
change.
D. Include new interactive functionality, which uses Microsoft Silverlight to build complex
visualizations.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 270-132
Exam Name: CA (Certified Unicenter Specialist Engineer)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 107 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Which two components are used to visually represent the overall enterprise
environment? (Choose two.)
A. DSM
B. COR
C. Unicenter Explorer
D. Real World Interface
E. Service Control Manager
Answer: CD

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NO.2 What is an accurate description of the Windows System Agent?
A. send alerts based upon critical operating system events
B. send alerts when a certain string of characters is written to a log file
C. send traps based on a service which is using too much memory
D. send traps based on a process which is using too much memory
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two components of the Jasmine Catalog architecture? (Choose two.)
A. COR
B. Global Catalog
C. Unicenter Explorer
D. WorldView Interface
E. WorldView Application Programming Interface (API)
Answer: BC

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NO.4 From the 2-D Map you open the tool Agent View and a Repository Error 22
message appears. What must you do to fix this error?
A. install Agent Views
B. reboot the machine
C. close the 2-D Map and reopen it
D. stop and restart the CA-Unicenter Service
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three components make up the Event Management architecture? (Choose
three.)
A. caopr.dsb
B. awservices
C. tngdb database
D. caioprdb database
E. NT Event Log Reader
Answer: ADE

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NO.6 Which file contains the object-oriented contents of a Local Catalog?
A. tngdb.dat
B. litestore.dat
C. jasclient.cfg
D. tndbrowser.cfg

NO.7 As a manager, what are three of the DSM's functions? (Choose three.)
A. filtering traps
B. request SNMP polls
C. logging polled values
D. filtering console messages
E. query Enterprise Management Objects
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 A machine named AGENT managed by DSM1 is having a problem. How should you
open this Nodeview from the command line?
A. nodeview -d DSM1 -a AGENT
B. nodeview -dsm DSM1 -agent AGENT
C. nodeview -dsm DSM1 -view AGENT@DSM1
D. nodeview -@ DSM1 -target AGENT@DSM1
Answer: D

CA test questions   270-132   270-132

NO.9 Your environment consists of five Unicenter NSM WorldView servers with a COR
and Unicenter Explorer installed on each. Four WorldView servers are at client
sites and point to a home office WorldView server which is the Global Catalog. At
the home office, in Unicenter Explorer Topology, you find that one of the client
COR's WorldView information is missing.
Which command should you run on that system to fix the problem?
A. synchcat
B. createcat
C. tndrepublish
D. tndunpublish
Answer: C

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NO.10 If you use the abroswer command to view an Agent on a remote host, where is the
browser file located?
A. local machine in c:\tnd\config\abrowser
B. local machine in c:\tnd\services\config\abrowser
C. remote machine in c:\tnd\config\abrowser
D. remote machine in c:\tnd\services\config\abrowser
Answer: A

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NO.11 Agent View tools are used to connect to which two Unicenter components? (Choose
two.)
A. DSM
B. COR
C. Agents
D. Event Manager
E. Workload Manager
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Certkiller has four locations each containing 100 computers being monitored with
Unicenter. Each location has one DSM to monitor all of the computers reporting to
a single COR. You have installed an Event Manager on each DSM to process the
events from computers at each location. You now want to implement fault tolerance.
You install a DSM and Event Manager on the COR machine. You configure this
DSM to monitor the Agents on the DSM at each location. You build a Message
Record and Actions that respond if any DSM fails, making the DSM on the COR
the DSM responsible for the 100 computers at the location where the DSM failed.
Which two things must the Message Record and Actions accomplish to cause the
central DSM to failover for the local DSM? (Choose two.)
A. modify the gwipfltii.dat file on the COR
B. issue the setdsmname command on the COR
C. modify the gwipflt.dat file on each local DSM
D. modify the gwipfltii.dat file on the local DSM
E. modify the aws_wvgate.ini file on each local DSM
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Certkiller requires securing the SNMP environment. Which two changes could be
made within the pollsets to make Unicenter consistent with this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. retries
B. SNMP port
C. trap destination
D. SNMP update timer
E. SNMP GET community string
Answer: BE

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NO.14 You want to secure Agents so they can only be modified by the correct users. What
accomplishes this?
A. editing the aws_sadmin.cfg file
B. editing the aws_sadmin.cnf file
C. editing the aws_snmp.cfg file
D. editing the gwipfltii.dat file
Answer: A

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NO.15 Before installing Remote Administration Client, what must be done?
A. load Unicenter Explorer
B. install SQL Client Connectivity
C. install and start the Agent Common services
D. install and start the IIS and World Wide Web services
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the three functional areas of Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. WorldView
B. Agent Technology
C. Enterprise Management
D. Performance Management
E. Advanced Network Operations
Answer: ABC

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NO.17 Certkiller has four locations each containing 100 computers being monitored with
Unicenter. Each location has one DSM to monitor all of the computers reporting to
a single COR. You have installed an Event Manager on each DSM to process the
events from computers at each location. You now want to implement fault tolerance.
You install a DSM and Event Manager on the COR machine. You configure this
DSM to monitor the Agents on the DSM at each location. You build a Message
Record and Actions which respond if any DSM fails, making the DSM on the COR
the DSM responsible for the 100 computers at the location where the DSM failed.
What else must you do?
A. modify the gwipflt.dat file on each local DSM
B. modify the gwipfltii.dat file on each local DSM
C. modify the aws_wvgate.ini file on each local DSM
D. modify the aws_sadmin.cfg file on all Agent machines
Answer: D

CA   270-132   270-132

NO.18 Which Unicenter NSM component, available in Unicenter Product Explorer, must
be installed to create BPVs with automatic re-evaluating criteria?
A. Dynamic BPV Browser
B. Advanced Event Correlation
C. Remote Administrative Client
D. Dynamic Containment Service
Answer: D

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NO.19 You wish to prevent your DSM from discovering and managing UNIX Agents.
Where should you move the caiuxos.dat and caiuxos.cnf files to make this happen?
A. CAIGLBL0000\config\aws_nsm\dm\exclude
B. CAIGLBL0000\services\config\aws_nsm\sys
C. CAIGLBL0000\services\config\aws_nsm\exclude
D. CAIGLBL0000\services\config\aws_nsm\dm\exclude
Answer: D

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NO.20 Your environment consists of five Unicenter NSM WorldView servers with a COR
and Unicenter Explorer installed on each. Four WorldView servers are at client
sites and point to a home office WorldView server which is the Global Catalog. One
of the client systems cannot connect to the home office Global Catalog.
Which two commands should you use to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. camstat
B. camping
C. unifstat
D. ccicntrl status
E. awservices status
Answer: AB

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Exam Name: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Professional Exam)
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Last Update: 2014-01-05

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NO.1 Named expressions enable you to:
A. Examine core components.
B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When using the Active Directory namespace, which Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (IDAP)
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A. IDAP paging
B. IDAP referrals
C. IDAP sorting operations
D. SSL connectivity using a native Windows Certificate database
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which feature applies to application roles?
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Exam Name: CA (CA Application Performance Management Administrator Exam )
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NO.1 When creating a report, where do you specify the metrics on which the report is based?
A. Text tab
B. Data Properties tab
C. Display Properties tab
D. Default Data Properties tab
Answer: B

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NO.2 When creating a Dashboard for a series of metrics that are all based on percentile values, what is the
MOST appropriate Data option for these values.?
A. Choose the Auto Expand option on the Scale tab.
B. Choose Show Minimum and Maximum Values on the Miscellaneous tab.
C. Choose the Pin At option on the Scale tab and set the Minimum and Maximum values at 0 and
100.
D. Place a check in the Enable Filter box on the Sort/Filter tab and Filter by the Metrics with topmost
values of 100.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement about CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domains is TRUE?
A. A domain cannot contain applications.
B. A domain can contain multiple applications.
C. A domain can only contain a single application.
D. An application managed by CA CEM is known as a domain.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which transaction recording methods are available in CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)?
(Choose three)
A. Agent
B. Script
C. Manual
D. Automatic
E. Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM)
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: CAT-221
Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v13.x Professional Certification Exam)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-05

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NO.1 CA Clarity PPM v13 portlets
A. Can use an object, a system, or a query as a data provider.
B. Use multiple dimensions if created using an object data provider.
C. Include restricted portlets, such as the Action Item portlet, which only administrators can
change.
D. Include new interactive functionality, which uses Microsoft Silverlight to build complex
visualizations.
Answer: A

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NO.2 To access the server page that lists the XML Open Gateway (XOG) invoke action web services,
you specify the following URL:
http://<servername:port>/niku/wsdl/InvokeAction
Which types of invoke action web services are listed here? (Choose three)
A. Process
B. Flush cache
C. Aggregate data
D. Productivity data
E. Synchronize external links
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 The creation of a grid portlet requires a data provider. Data providers can be: (Choose three)
A. Filters
B. Events
C. Objects
D. Systems
E. NSQL queries
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 Which feature characterizes NSQL multi-dimensional queries?
A. The data provider is always an object.
B. The related portlets have a Y-axis subpage.
C. They enable more complex charts such as Donut charts.
D. They always include change_key and merge_key attributes.
Answer: B

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6. You need to export a single portlet that is contained within a dashboard. Which limitations do
you
need to consider? (Choose three)
A. The export will always be Fit to Page.
B. The Export to PDF option must be selected.
C. The Export to PowerPoint option will only permit 30 records.
D. The dashboard template must be Application Page Template.
E. The dashboard type must be Page with Tabs or Page without Tabs.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. The CA Clarity PPM bundle includes CA Business Intelligence (CABI) software. Which features
characterize CABI? (Choose three)
A. Support for cached content
B. Component-based content development
C. A built-in INSolve Functional Intelligence QuickStart Pack
D. An InfoView Business Relationship Manager (BRM) module for complex report design
E. A built-in paging mechanism to help ensure the scalable delivery of large volumes of content
Answer: A,B,E

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8. Before saving a Generic Execution Language (GEL) script in a process, it is recommended that
you:
A. Validate the GEL script
B. Remove all FTP Library tags
C. Delete all namespace declarations
D. Test the GEL script in a duplicate process
Answer: D

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9. Which technology is Generic Execution Language (GEL) based on?
A. Oracle Java
B. CA Clarity PPM
C. Apache Jakarta Jelly
D. SAP Business Objects
Answer: C

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10. Out of the box, which object actions can you create in CA Clarity PPM v13? (Choose three)
A. Run a stock report
B. Link to Google search
C. Delete an active service
D. Run the Delete Investments job
E. Move tasks across or between projects
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 In the CA Clarity PPM Process Engines event flow, what is the function of the Wakeup Signal?
A. Displays detailed Process Engines instance information
B. Triggers the Background Engine as soon an event is fired
C. Keeps track of all the executing process, controls the event flow, and helps manage the
Workflow Execution
D. Interacts with the CA Clarity PPM database on a consistent basis to proceed with the workflow
steps or instructions
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 270-131
Exam Name: CA (Certified Unicenter Specialist Administrator )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: ACF

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NO.2 Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through
which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B

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NO.3 To access a remote enterprise manager through the Unicenter explorer the user
must specify what type of Userid?
A. The MS SQL server system administrator userid, 'sa'
B. The COR userid and password
C. An operating system userid that allows login to the remote system.
D. The caunint userid.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the
Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?
A. Standard
B. Default
C. MAIN
D. BASE
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Left Pane option is used to create a new Calendar inside the Unicenter
Explorer?
A. Topology
B. Tools
C. Properties
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: D

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NO.7 All message records and message actions are stored in the Event Management
database. When you add, modify, or delete message records and message actions,
you are not changing active policy; you are simply updating the database. What is
the default logical name for this database?
A. caioprdb
B. caioprlog
C. caoprdmn process
D. opreload
Answer: A

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NO.8 The opreload process reads the policy stored in the Event Management database
and creates two copies of the Decision Support Binary. One is placed in memory and
the other is stored on the disk. What is the default name of the DSB copy stored on
the disk?
A. caioprdb
B. caopr.dsb
C. caoprdmn process
D. caoprlog process
Answer: B

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NO.9 What command directs Event Management to refresh the active Message Record
and Message Action lists immediately with the definitions stored in the Event
Management database?
A. cawto
B. clean_sadmin
C. opreload
D. resetdsm
Answer: C

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NO.10 When creating a new Calendar within the Unicenter Explorer, what is the default
Time increment?
A. 5 Minutes
B. 15 Minutes
C. 10 Minutes
D. 12 Minutes
Answer: B

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NO.11 What component is selected to install the Report Builder and Report
Administrator?
A. Unicenter Explorer
B. Performance Management
C. Unicenter Reports
D. Software Development Kit
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are the Message Records and Action policies referred to after they are loaded
into physical memory?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Decision Support Binary
C. Distributed Services Bus
D. Event Console
Answer: B

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NO.13 Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Agent
Answer: B

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NO.14 What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application
resources. They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.16 CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. CPUTNG
C. POSTCPU
D. PRECPU
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D

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NO.19 What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B

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NO.20 When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what
network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D

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