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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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250-405 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-10-21

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Exam Code: 250-410
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.x
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
250-410 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-10-21

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NO.1 Which field is required for manually adding a Windows asset?
A. Machine Name
B. IP Address
C. OS Major/Minor Version
D. Asset Site
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must be done to save customized settings when using the report viewer?
A. copy the customized report
B. save the customized report
C. export the customized report
D. update the customized report
Answer: C

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7. Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature facilitates the monitoring and
approval of access rights in an organization?
A. Evaluations
B. Reports
C. Dashboards
D. Entitlements
Answer: D

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8. Users can copy an Asset Group to which two locations? (Select two.)
A. Asset Group templates
B. Existing Asset group
C. Business Asset view
D. Asset System root folder
E. Assets folder
Answer: D,E

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9. To effectively and consistently manage a relative concept like risk, risk must be defined. How is
the risk modeling process used during this process?
A. to present a consolidated view of assets
B. to collect raw-data based content
C. to identify and define security objectives
D. to assess security compliance status
Answer: C

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10. What are two types of Dashboards? (Select two.)
A. Web-based
B. Static
C. Organizational
D. Tiered
E. Executive
Answer: A,D

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11. A manager at corporate headquarters questions the validity of a compliance report because
the date and time are incorrect. Which is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The Application Server is in a different timezone.
B. The Reporting Database is in a different timezone.
C. The CCS Manager in the Reporting role is in a different timezone.
D. The report was incorrectly configured.
Answer: A

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12. Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 provides a mechanism to tag and identify assets for
report and scope purposes. Tagging is a way to define an asset with which type of information?
A. keyword
B. object
C. meta
D. category
Answer: C

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13. In addition to Report Data Synchronization and Report Generation, what is another
report-related job that can be executed from the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 console?
A. Dashboard Import job
B. Report Data Purge job
C. Report Export job
D. Dashboard Synchronization job
Answer: B

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14. Which two data connectors are used to integrate with third-party applications to import
required data? (Select two.)
A. Standards connector
B. Web Services connector
C. Policy Manager connector
D. CSV data connector
E. Policy Module connector
Answer: B,D

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15. Which two tasks should be completed prior to deploying Symantec Control Compliance Suite
11.0? (Select two.)
A. create Service Principal Names
B. install licenses
C. create certificates
D. install sites
E. create service accounts
Answer: A,E

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16. The risk calculation logic in the Risk Manager module calculates the risk score based on the
evaluation and the assessment data that is collected from checks, questions, and extended tests and
assessment procedures that are available in the reporting database for the corresponding assets.
Which job type does Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 run for Risk Manager to determine
the correct risk score?
A. Report Data Synchronization job
B. Remediation Verification job
C. Collection-Evaluation-Reporting job
D. Global Metrics and Trends Computation job
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two features of Reporting and Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Gold Standards
B. Standards
C. Entitlements
D. Patch Management
E. Enterprise Security Manager
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.5 A query returns multiple rows with the same machine name. Which method should be used to
narrow the results?
A. remove the Machine Name field
B. reduce the scope
C. set primary sort to a field other than Machine Name
D. set the Sort to Suppress Records with Duplicate Key
Answer: D

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NO.6 The CCS Manager Service can be configured for which type of data collector?
A. historical data collector
B. evaluation data collector
C. VMware data collector
D. HTTP data collector
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-410
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.x
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
250-410 Dumps PDF Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-10-02

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Exam Code: 250-407
Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
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Last Update: 2014-10-02

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NO.1 A query returns multiple rows with the same machine name. Which method should be used to
narrow the results?
A. remove the Machine Name field
B. reduce the scope
C. set primary sort to a field other than Machine Name
D. set the Sort to Suppress Records with Duplicate Key
Answer: D

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NO.2 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.3 What must be done to save customized settings when using the report viewer?
A. copy the customized report
B. save the customized report
C. export the customized report
D. update the customized report
Answer: C

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7. Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature facilitates the monitoring and
approval of access rights in an organization?
A. Evaluations
B. Reports
C. Dashboards
D. Entitlements
Answer: D

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8. Users can copy an Asset Group to which two locations? (Select two.)
A. Asset Group templates
B. Existing Asset group
C. Business Asset view
D. Asset System root folder
E. Assets folder
Answer: D,E

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9. To effectively and consistently manage a relative concept like risk, risk must be defined. How is
the risk modeling process used during this process?
A. to present a consolidated view of assets
B. to collect raw-data based content
C. to identify and define security objectives
D. to assess security compliance status
Answer: C

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10. What are two types of Dashboards? (Select two.)
A. Web-based
B. Static
C. Organizational
D. Tiered
E. Executive
Answer: A,D

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11. A manager at corporate headquarters questions the validity of a compliance report because
the date and time are incorrect. Which is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The Application Server is in a different timezone.
B. The Reporting Database is in a different timezone.
C. The CCS Manager in the Reporting role is in a different timezone.
D. The report was incorrectly configured.
Answer: A

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12. Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 provides a mechanism to tag and identify assets for
report and scope purposes. Tagging is a way to define an asset with which type of information?
A. keyword
B. object
C. meta
D. category
Answer: C

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13. In addition to Report Data Synchronization and Report Generation, what is another
report-related job that can be executed from the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 console?
A. Dashboard Import job
B. Report Data Purge job
C. Report Export job
D. Dashboard Synchronization job
Answer: B

Symantec Exam Dumps   250-410 Braindumps   250-410 Actual Test   250-410
14. Which two data connectors are used to integrate with third-party applications to import
required data? (Select two.)
A. Standards connector
B. Web Services connector
C. Policy Manager connector
D. CSV data connector
E. Policy Module connector
Answer: B,D

Symantec Dumps PDF   250-410 test answers   250-410 original questions   250-410
15. Which two tasks should be completed prior to deploying Symantec Control Compliance Suite
11.0? (Select two.)
A. create Service Principal Names
B. install licenses
C. create certificates
D. install sites
E. create service accounts
Answer: A,E

Symantec   250-410 Braindumps   250-410 Test Questions   250-410 Test Answers
16. The risk calculation logic in the Risk Manager module calculates the risk score based on the
evaluation and the assessment data that is collected from checks, questions, and extended tests and
assessment procedures that are available in the reporting database for the corresponding assets.
Which job type does Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 run for Risk Manager to determine
the correct risk score?
A. Report Data Synchronization job
B. Remediation Verification job
C. Collection-Evaluation-Reporting job
D. Global Metrics and Trends Computation job
Answer: D

Symantec   250-410 pdf   250-410   250-410

NO.4 The CCS Manager Service can be configured for which type of data collector?
A. historical data collector
B. evaluation data collector
C. VMware data collector
D. HTTP data collector
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two features of Reporting and Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Gold Standards
B. Standards
C. Entitlements
D. Patch Management
E. Enterprise Security Manager
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Which field is required for manually adding a Windows asset?
A. Machine Name
B. IP Address
C. OS Major/Minor Version
D. Asset Site
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Exam Code: ST0-250
Exam Name: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.5 A named resource target contains 50 computers in the Sales Department. Several policies and
tasks are applied to this target. An administrator modifies one of these policies by changing this
target so that the policy now applies to 25 computers in the Engineering Department. How are the
policies and tasks affected?
A. Only the policy that the administrator changed is affected; all others only apply to the 50
computers in the Sales Department.
B. Only the policies and tasks that the administrator created are affected and apply to the 25
computers in the Engineering Department.
C. Every policy and task that applies to the target now applies to 75 computers in both the Sales and
Engineering Departments.
D. Every policy and task that applies to the target now only applies to the 25 computers in the
Engineering Department.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is attempting to set up a replication rule. When the administrator right-clicks the
replication folder, the menu in the exhibit appears. What does the administrator need to do to
create a replication rule?
A. enable Replication
B. access one of the Replication subfolders
C. access the resource and select Replicate Now
D. create a subfolder and access it there
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-407
Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
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NO.1 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire
2099" has been installed on company desktops.
The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser
toolbar and needs to be removed immediately.
The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that
they can receive a private email about the situation.
Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an
application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog.
There is a duplicate for a software resource.
The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and selected the
option to merge duplicate resources.
What will happen to the duplicate entries in the Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the
duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate isdeleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the
newest timestamp isdeleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry
with the oldest timestamp isdeleted.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application.
During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be
changed without modifying the MSI.
The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package.
Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is
modified in the Software Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.5 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.7 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints
across a company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification
Server is slower during the inventory scan times.
Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to reduce the processing impact on the
Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weeklyschedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.2 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following will cause Silent Enrollment to fail.?
A. Directory Synchronization is enabled and there are multiple directories enabled.
B. LDAP Enrollment is enabled but the Bind DN has been entered correctly.
C. Key Reconstruction is enabled.
D. The Windows username / password are different than the LDAP credentials for the user.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer's PGP Universal Server is running in Learn Mode and they want to automatically create
external users. How could this be done?
A. By simply sending email to external users (with a no-key policy of Smart Trailer or Web Messenger).
B. By configuring Directory Synchronization to import external users? keys.
C. By enabling the Verified Directory service (so that external users can manually upload their keys).
D. It is not possible to automatically create external users in Learn Mode.
Answer: D

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NO.3 PGP Desktop can perform SMIME and / or PGP encryption.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A. The file is decrypted
B. The file remains encrypted
C. The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D. If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E. It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.5 An Additional Decryption Key (or ADK):
A. Is often split into shares for security.
B. Can be used for decryption of files and emails.
C. Should only be used in situations clearly defined by an organization's security policies.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 The application whitelist only works if the files are stored in a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Clustering can be done during or after installation and setup of a PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 The WDE Disk Administrator Passphrase allows an administrator to?
A. Log into the PGP Universal Server.
B. Authenticate at BootGuard on any system in the Consumer Policy.
C. Change a user WDRT from the server.
D. Run a bypass on the user system even if it is powered down.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which two methods can be used to install NetBackup license keys? (Choose two.)
A. when prompted during the NetBackup software installation
B. after the NetBackup software installation by executing get_license_key
C. after the NetBackup software installation by executing add_license_key
D. after the NetBackup software installation by clicking the Support tab on the NetBackup Administration
Console
Answer:AB

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NO.2 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment. Which three items do you
need toknow before backups can be configured? (Choose three. )
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. the backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 You are installing NetBackup Database agents into an environment with a high level of change control.
You are using all of the relevant Database agents.Which database forces you to restart the database
though it does not necessarily require rebooting the whole system?
A. Oracle 8i
B. MSSQL 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. Microsoft Access
Answer:A

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NO.4 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The database
application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent. The server is in production
around-the-clock.Backups must not interrupt production, and open files must be backed up. The DB data
exists on SAN attacheddisks, though available disk space is scarce. Which of the following backup
methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
D. Block level incremental backups
Answer:A

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NO.5 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your Solaris NetBackup
master server. The system administrator for these systems has given you a Domain Administrator
account and permissionto install the client, but he will not be available to help you. He has not given you
access to the computer room where the systems are physically located.What is the supported method for
installing the client?
A. share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems via a Remote Terminal session, map the
CD andrun setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server select all the remote clients in Host Properties,
right-click,and select Remote Client Install
C. log in to any Windows system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on the
installation CD and install to network clients
D. remote installation to Windows clients is not allowed from a UNIX Master; the system administrator will
haveto give you physical access to the clients.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master server? (Choose
two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. set up policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: DE

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NO.7 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is not available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two steps are performed to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two.)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console
Answer:AD

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NO.1 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

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NO.3 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

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NO.4 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.7 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.2 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.4 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.8 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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