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Exam Code: FC0-U41
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 273 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 .Your client currently has Windows 98 and wishes to upgrade to Windows XP. What is the most
efficient way to accomplish this goal?
A. Buy and install the Windows XP Upgrade.
B. Install a full copy of Windows XP.
C. First upgrade to Windows 2000, then to Windows XP.
D. You cannot upgrade from Windows 98 to XP.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to
protect a computer from new viruses?
A. Definition
B. Modules
C. Service pack
D. Hotfix
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following expansion slots can be used to plug a SCSI adapter? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VESA
B. Slot 2
C. PCI
D. Slot 1
E. EISA
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 Which of the following AT Attachment (ATA) standards supports transfer mode UltraDMA/133?
A. ATA-6
B. ATA-7
C. ATA-4
D. ATA-5
Answer: B

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the appropriate class of fire extinguisher in front of types of fires.

NO.7 Which of the following are the types of parental control?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Content filter control
B. Usage control
C. Monitoring control
D. Usage management tool
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following Interfaces has the ability to support digital audio as well as video through a
single cable?
A. VGA
B. HDMI
C. SVGA
D. DVI
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 5 meters
Answer: C

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NO.10 HOTSPOT
Identify the CNR slot in the image given below.

NO.11 .Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiMH
B. Lithium-Ion
C. Energizer
D. NiCad
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which of the following is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products?
A. Energy Star rating
B. Standby mode
C. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
D. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
Answer: A

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NO.14 .Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which of the following color code is used for a PS/2 keyboard connector on new motherboards?
A. Purple
B. Pink
C. Green
D. Blue
Answer: A

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NO.16 .Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card,
and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B

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NO.17 .Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D

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NO.18 .Which of the following statements about the DVI-I connector are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It contains 4 more pins than the DVI-D connector.
B. It is used only for digital signal connection.
C. It is used for both digital and analog signal connections.
D. It contains 15 more pins than the DVI-D connector.
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 .Which of the following are types of LCD monitors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which of the following are the basic options in Windows XP for putting your laptop to sleep when
you are not actively using it, but do not want to completely shut it down?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Low-power state
B. Sleeper state
C. Standby
D. Hibernate
Answer: C,D

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NO.21 .You are implementing wireless access at a defense contractor. Specifications say, you must
implement the AES Encryption algorithm. Which encryption standard should you choose?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. TKIP
D. WPA 2
Answer: D

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NO.22 .Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

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NO.23 .Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.24 .In which of the following sizes are the Express Card modules available? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 54 mm Wide
B. 64 mm Wide
C. 20 mm Wide
D. 34 mm Wide
Answer: A,D

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NO.25 .Which of the following cryptographic algorithm uses public key and private key to encrypt or decrypt
data ?
A. Hashing
B. Symmetric
C. Asymmetric
D. Numeric
Answer: C

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NO.26 .Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. DB-25
C. PS/2
D. DB-9
Answer: A,C

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NO.27 HOTSPOT
Identify the S-Video port in the image given below.
DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display
invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces
with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD
monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals
coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three
main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector,
DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors
are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher
resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HDMI"

NO.28 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company. The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following storage device uses SRAM or DRAM?
A. USB flash drive
B. Solid-state drive (SSD)
C. Blu-ray Disc
D. CD drive
Answer: B

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NO.30 .You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his
laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion
card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B

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Exam Code: PK0-003
Exam Name: CompTIA (Project+ (2009))
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Total Q&A: 661 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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NO.2 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.3 Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project warranty
C. Project process reports
D. Earned value calculations
Answer: B

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NO.4 A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
A. ADM
B. WBS
C. AON
D. PDM
Answer: A

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NO.5 In order to complete the core-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A. Obtain funding for the project.
B. Provide quality review of the deliverables.
C. Provide leadership to the project team.
D. Obtain resolution of the application development Issues.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system. Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
A. Conduct a feasibility study.
B. Determine the justification of the project.
C. Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee.
D. Determine if the project is in alignment with the company strategic plan.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B

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NO.9 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together.
This is an example of which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?
A. Team member compensation
B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Project needs assessment
D. Control limits
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor. This is an example of which of the following actions?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Audit review
D. Phase gate
Answer: D

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NO.15 A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected.
To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime,
which will increase the cost of the project. Which of the following should be the NEXT
A. Ask the key stakeholder for more funding for the project.
B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project.
C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule.
D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location.?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.18 The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:
A. methodology verification.
B. scope verification.
C. change verification.
D. system verification.
Answer: B

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NO.19 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.20 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.22 A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Reassign the individual to another role on the project team.
B. Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best.
C. Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further.
D. Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person.
Answer: C

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NO.23 The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A. Contingency reserve
B. Project charter
C. Project schedule
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project
documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: B

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NO.26 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.29 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SY0-301
Exam Name: CompTIA (Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 587 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST allows Pete, a security administrator, to determine the type, source, and
flags of the packet traversing a network for troubleshooting purposes?
A. Switches
B. Protocol analyzers
C. Routers
D. Web security gateways
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Input validation
C. Single point of failure
D. Single sign on
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following inspects traffic entering or leaving a network to look for anomalies against
expected baselines?
A. IPS
B. Sniffers
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

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NO.7 The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the
following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

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NO.9 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following BEST describes a software vulnerability that is actively being used by Sara and
Jane, attackers, before the vendor releases a protective patch or update?
A. Buffer overflow
B. IV attack
C. Zero day attack
D. LDAP injection
Answer: C

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NO.12 Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving
each day.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of
administrative overhead.?
A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network.
B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email
C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client.
D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

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NO.14 Social networking sites are used daily by the marketing team for promotional purposes. However,
confidential company information, including product pictures and potential partnerships, have been
inadvertently exposed to the public by dozens of employees using social networking sites. Which of
following is the BEST response to mitigate this threat with minimal company disruption?
A. Mandate additional security awareness training for all employees.
B. Report each employee to Human Resources for termination for violation of security policies
C. Implement a data loss prevention program to filter email.
D. Block access to social networking sites from the corporate network
Answer: A

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NO.15 A company has sent all of its private keys to a third party. The third party company has created a
secure list of these keys. Which of the following has just been implemented?
A. Key escrow
B. CRL
C. CA
D. Recovery agent
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following authentication protocols forces centralized wireless authentication?
A. WPA2-Personal
B. WPA2-Enterprise
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.18 Sara, an IT administrator, wants to protect a cluster of servers in a DMZ from zero day attacks. Which
of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Antivirus
Answer: A

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NO.19 Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are
running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use?
A. Active fingerprinting
B. Passive finger printing
C. Protocol analyzing
D. Network enumerating
Answer: B

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NO.20 A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of
the following BEST describes this system type?
A. NAT
B. NIPS
C. NAC
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ACMP_6.1
Exam Name: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the correct
answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.2 In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?
A. AP 105
B. AP 125
C. RAP2
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following could be used to set a user's post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. Limit One per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP.?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?
A. AP license
B. PEF-NG license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license required
Answer: A

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NO.11 The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP - 5
B. AP 125
C. AP 120
D. AP 124
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the b/g
band as well as the a
band?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.15 An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the "RFProtect license."
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn't the correct license for this purpose
Answer: C

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NO.16 When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
Answer: D

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NO.17 When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
Answer: C

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NO.19 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.20 What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba's Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Illustrator CS5 ACE Exam)
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Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You want to print a document with trim marks and a bleed value of 0.1875 inches. You choose File >
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A. Set the value for all bleeds to a value above 0.1875 inch.
B. Deselect Auto-Rotate and choose Tile in the Options area.
C. Enter a value of 0.1875 inch for all bleed settings and the Offset setting.
D. Select the Use Document Bleed Settings option, and deselect Color Bars and Page Information.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want to use the Shift key plus any arrow keys to nudge objects 1 pica. There are 12 points in a pica.
Which value should you enter in the Keyboard Increment field in the general preference?
A. 12 pt
B. 1.2 pt
C. 120 pt
D. 0.12 pt
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which settings or command allows you to view a pixel grid when you are creating web graphics?
A. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 600%
B. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 100%
C. Pixel Preview on, Full Screen Mode
D. Choose View > Show Grid
Answer: A

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Pen tool on the selected path. What should you do?
A. Press Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) and drag the anchor point.
B. Shift-click the anchor point.
C. Double-click the anchor point.
D. Click on the anchor point while pressing the Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) key.
Answer: A

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NO.5 To see more of your document when working, you want to hide all panels except the Tools panel. What
should you do?
A. Choose Window > Arrange > Float in Window.
B. Click the Change Screen Mode button at the bottom of the Tools panel to toggle to Full Screen Mode
C. Press the Tab key.
D. Press Shift+Tab.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You want to add metadata information to the file you are working on. Which command should you
choose?
A. Window > Document Info
B. Window > Info
C. File > File Info
D. File > Document Setup
Answer: C

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NO.7 You want to add some guides that will be visible only inside a particular artboard. What should you do?
A. Select the Artboard tool from the Tools panel, click on the artboard, and then drag guides out from the
horizontal or vertical document ruler.
B. Select the artboard name in the Artboard panel, and then drag a guide out from the horizontal or
vertical document ruler.
C. Click on the artboard with the Selection tool, and then Option+double-click (Mac OS) or
Alt+double-click (Windows) on the horizontal or vertical ruler.
D. Drag a guide from the horizontal or vertical document ruler, and hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt
(Windows) key before letting go of the mouse button.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are working a large poster. The poster will be printed on six tiled pages, each defined by an
artboard. The artboards have been arranged with no space between them. You want to position objects
based on the upper-left corner of the upper-left artboard. Which rulers should you use?
A. Artboard
B. Global
C. Video
D. Perspective Grid
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can you view three separate document windows side by side?
A. Choose Tile All Vertically from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
B. Choose Window > Arrange > Cascade.
C. Choose > Tile All In Grid from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where does the new artboard appear when you create it using the New Artboard button in the Artboard
panel.?
A. To the left of all current artboards
B. To the right of all current artboards
C. Below all curent artboards
D. Above all curent artboards
Answer: B

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NO.11 Using the Layers panel, you want to move objects that are selected from one layer to a locked layer by
dragging the Selected Art icon to the target layer. Which key combination should you use?
A. Command+Option-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl+Alt-drag (Windows)
B. Shift-drag
C. Command-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl-drag (Windows)
D. Option-drag (Mac OS) or Alt-drag (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have created several additional artboards while working on a document. You want to position all of
the artboards in a more logical manner within your document. What should you do?
A. Click and drag the artboards in the Artboard panel so they appear in the order you want.
B. Double-click the Artboard tool, and adjust the 9-point registration box under the Position field in the
Artboard Options dialog box.
C. Choose Object > Artboards > Rearrange.
D. Choose Artboard Options from the Artboard panel menu.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have created a nested artboard in a multiple artboard document. Which two file formats will enable
you to save or export each artboard into an individual file? (Choose two.)
A. Adobe Illustrator (ai)
B. SVG (svg)
C. BMP (bmp)
D. Adobe FXG (fxg)
E. Photoshop (psd)
F. Windows Metafile (wmf)
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Which profile in the New Document dialog box has the following default settings?
RGB, 72 PPI document with Align to Pixel Grid disabled
Measurement units set to Pixels
Page orientation set to Portrait
A. Mobile and Devices
B. Web
C. Basic RGB
D. Flash Catalyst
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have saved a custom Keyboard Shortcut set. How can you see a list of all the keyboard shortcuts,
including your modified ones?
A. Open the Illustrator Defaults.kys file inside the Illustrator application folder in a text editor.
B. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Export Text button.
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Save button.
D. Type Keyboard Shortcuts in the Search field on the Help menu.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9A0-058
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which is an advantage of selecting a Flash Player version in Publish Settings before beginning a
project?
A. There is NO advantage. It is identical to choosing them at the conclusion.
B. Components not available in the targeted player will be removed from the Components Panel.
C. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be highlighted in the
Script Navigator.
D. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be removed from
the Script Navigator.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is NOT a benefit when adding a title in the Document Properties?
A. The title will be used for your HTML document
B. Metadata will be added for any version of Flash
C. Metadata will be added to the head of the SWF file
D. Metadata can be seen by choosing Publish Settings >Generate Size Report
Answer:A

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NO.3 You are creating a form that will fade out when the user submits it. What must you do to with the text
fields to ensure that text entered by the user will fade out?
A. Embed the font in the text field.
B. Use device fonts in your text field.
C. Set the text field type to dynamic.
D. Choose the Anti-alias for Animation option from the Font Rendering Method pop-up menu in the
Properties panel.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which two file formats can be imported into a SWF file at runtime? (Choose two.)
A. AI
B. JPG
C. EPS
D. PNG
E. PSD
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which two panels can be used to change the label text of a Button component? (Choose two.)
A. the Strings panel
B. the Properties panel
C. the Component panel
D. the Accessibility panel
E. the Component Inspector panel
Answer: BE

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NO.6 You want to create a Rectangle shape with a defined corner radius. Which tool should you use?
A. Square
B. Rectangle
C. Rectangle Primitive
D. Rectangle Shape Properties
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which is the quickest way to make the stroke around an oval shape into a dotted line?
A. Apply the Dotted filter to the stroke of the shape.
B. In the Ink Bottle tool options, set the stroke join type to dotted.
C. Set the stroke type of the shape to dotted in the Properties panel.
D. Choose the Modify > Shape > Convert Lines to Fills option and erase parts of the stroke to make it
appear dotted.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have a TextField selected on stage and would like to separate each letter into its own TextField.
Which option under the Modify menu allows you to do this?
A. Divide
B. Separate
C. Break Apart
D. Individualize
Answer: C

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NO.9 You want to skin Flash CS3 components. What should you do?
A. Edit the HaloTheme
B. Edit the SampleTheme
C. Apply one of the available themes
D. Double-Click a component on the stage and edit the internal graphic
Answer: D

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NO.10 What happens when you drag an object created with the Oval tool to the Library panel?
A. The oval object is added to the Library as a symbol.
B. The oval object is added to the Library as an object.
C. The oval object is added to the Library as a primitive.
D. The oval object is added to the Library as an imported item.
Answer:A

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NO.11 You are creating a project for the FlashLite player. You are concerned with the processor capabilities
of the device.
Which graphic asset would require the most processing power on the player?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. Vector
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have a video project that would best be served by using full screen mode. This needs to be done
from within the browser, since you are NOT able to use a projector. Which publish settings should you
use?
A. Use Flash Player 7 or higher.
B. Use Flash Player 8 or higher.
C. Use Flash Player 9 or higher.
D. None. FullScreen mode is only possible in a projector.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your company logo is available in the following formats: Illustrator, JPG, PNG, GIF and PSD. Which
format would give you the most options within your Flash project?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. PSD
E. Illustrator
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which two are symbol options when converting an object into a symbol? (Choose two.)
A. Video
B. Image
C. Graphic
D. MovieClip
E. Component
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
You have selected Object 1 with the Selection tool. You switch to the Eyedropper tool and click on the fill
of Object 2.
Which object does Object 1 transform into?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D
Answer:A

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NO.16 You have a rectangle shape with rounded corners. You want to ensure that the corners do NOT distort
when the rectangle is scaled. What should you do?
A. Adjust xscale and yscale properties
B. Convert the shape to a Graphic symbol
C. It's not possible to prevent the corners from scaling
D. Convert the shape to a MovieClip and apply 9-slice scaling
Answer: D

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
Which tool was used to create the graphic shown in the exhibit?
A. The Pen tool
B. The Rectangle tool
C. It CANNOT be determined.
D. The Rectangle Primitive tool
Answer: D

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NO.18 User accessibility on your video project is a key factor. Which two features should you choose?
(Choose two.)
A. Set showCaptions = true.
B. Use methods of the AccessibleVideo class.
C. Use methods of the UserAccessiblility class.
D. Use Flash 8 Player and the useCaptions method.
E. Use Flash Player 9 with FLVPlayBackCaptioning component.
Answer:AE

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NO.19 You have a dynamically loaded image that is larger than your stage. Which component would work
best to accommodate this image?
A. Window
B. TextArea
C. DataGrid
D. ScrollPane
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which text anti-aliasing property setting will result in the smallest SWF file size?
A. Use Device Fonts
B. Anti-Alias for Animation
C. Anti-Alias for Readability
D. Bitmap Text (No Anti-Alias)
Answer:A

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