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2014年5月13日星期二

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Exam Code: E20-495
Exam Name: Content Management xCelerated Composition Platform Application Development Exam
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Exam Code: E20-080
Exam Name: Network Storage - SAN Implementation
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Exam Code: E20-324
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NO.1 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Users access documents by searching for them using a fulltext query. The query could potentially
return hundreds of thousands of documents; however users are only allowed to access those that were
generated within the user ¯ s o w n depa rt m en t, w h i ch i s a s m a ll nu m be r o f docu m en t s . A ccess i s con tr o ll ed
using an ACL that grants appropriate access by department.
Which data modeling approach will significantly improve the response time for the query without changing
the query semantics?
A. Modify the query to run at the database rather than the fulltext server.
B. Ensure that the ACL assigned to documents does not contain a large number of accessors.
C. Modify the ACL to restrict, rather than grant, access using the access restrictions feature of Trusted
Content Services.
D. Add an attribute value to documents that indicates the originating department and modify the query to
filter on this attribute.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

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NO.4 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which third-party product available from EMC is commonly deployed with TaskSpace to provide
document viewing, redaction, and redlining?
A. Workshare DeltaView
B. Informative Graphics Brava!
C. Adobe Acrobat Reader
D. Documentum Image Services
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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NO.7 An application developer is creating a business process template and needs to ensure that certain
pieces of data that are included within a structured data type will be persisted in the repository after the
workflow completes.
To which location should the structured data type data be mapped?
A. process parameters
B. process variables
C. attributes of a package
D. no mapping is required
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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2014年4月17日星期四

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Exam Code: E20-080
Exam Name: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 210 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-17

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NO.1 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

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NO.8 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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NO.15 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

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NO.23 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

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NO.24 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.26 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

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2013年9月1日星期日

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Exam Code: E20-080
Exam Name: EMC Network Storage - SAN Implementation E20-080
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Updated: 2013-09-01

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NO.1 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

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NO.11 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

EMC   E20-080   E20-080

NO.15 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

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NO.18 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

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NO.19 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

EMC   E20-080 test   E20-080

NO.22 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

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NO.24 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

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NO.26 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

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NO.28 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

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NO.29 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

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2013年7月27日星期六

Latest EMC E20-080 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: E20-080

Exam Name: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)

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NO.1 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

EMC   E20-080   E20-080 test answers   E20-080

NO.2 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

EMC   E20-080   E20-080 test questions   E20-080 questions

NO.3 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080 test questions   E20-080

NO.4 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

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NO.6 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

EMC exam prep   E20-080 exam prep   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.7 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

EMC original questions   E20-080   E20-080 practice test   E20-080   E20-080

NO.8 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080 practice test   E20-080   E20-080 answers real questions

NO.10 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080 certification training   E20-080   E20-080 pdf

NO.13 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

EMC   E20-080 questions   E20-080 exam dumps   E20-080 test answers   E20-080

NO.14 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080 dumps   E20-080   E20-080

NO.15 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

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NO.22 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080 original questions   E20-080

NO.24 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

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NO.25 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

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NO.27 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

EMC   E20-080 answers real questions   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080 answers real questions   E20-080

NO.28 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

EMC questions   E20-080 test answers   E20-080

NO.29 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

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