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Exam Code: PEGACBA001
Exam Name: PRPC v6.1 Certified Business Architect Written Exam
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Last Update: 2014-07-09

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Exam Code: PEGACMBB
Exam Name: PRPC Certified Methodology Black Belt Exam
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NO.1 The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the Application
Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and other
project artifacts because: (Choose Two)
A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort
B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler
C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework
D. These artifacts are required to create a new application
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 From a flow rule you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.4 The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM Methodology: (Choose one)
A. Quality checks
B. Governance
C. Directly Capturing Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role based training) begin?
(Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received the
expected value from this application: (Choose two)
A. Objectives
B. Requirements
C. Use cases
D. Project scenarios
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 The following processes/tools are used in the Inception phase EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Project Plan Template
B. Methodology Alignment Workshop
C. Project Management Framework
D. Test Management Framework
Answer: D

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NO.8 Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3)
A. Flows
B. Activities
C. Requirements
D. Validation rules
E. Properties
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: PEGACLSA_6.2V2
Exam Name: Certified Lead System Architect (CLSA) 6.2V2
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Exam Code: PEGACSA-v6.2
Exam Name: Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam
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Exam Code: PEGACCA
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NO.1 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.7 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: PEGACMBB
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified Methodology Black Belt Exam )
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 All of the following are benefits realized from the SmartBPM Methodology EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Short release cycles ensure maximum value is obtained along the way
B. Strict project management planning and measurement using tollgate milestones
C. Users provide higher quality requirements for subsequent releases after first-hand experience
D. Planning for multiple releases establishes a framework that ensures value gain in the future
Answer: B

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NO.2 In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role based training) begin?
(Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 From a flow rule you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.4 Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3)
A. Flows
B. Activities
C. Requirements
D. Validation rules
E. Properties
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received the
expected value from this application: (Choose two)
A. Objectives
B. Requirements
C. Use cases
D. Project scenarios
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 The program roadmap presents the big picture for solution development. This roadmap is divided into
_____ which are divided into _____ which are made up of _____. (Choose one)
A. Use cases, slivers, projects
B. Projects, use cases, slivers
C. Use cases, projects, slivers
D. Projects, slivers, use cases
Answer: D

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NO.7 The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM Methodology: (Choose one)
A. Quality checks
B. Governance
C. Directly Capturing Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the Application
Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 The following processes/tools are used in the Inception phase EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Project Plan Template
B. Methodology Alignment Workshop
C. Project Management Framework
D. Test Management Framework
Answer: D

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NO.10 It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and other
project artifacts because: (Choose Two)
A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort
B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler
C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework
D. These artifacts are required to create a new application
Answer: A,B

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Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified Lead System Architect (CLSA) 6.2V2)
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NO.1 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start another flow execution while continuing down the current process path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C

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NO.2 A work type MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Request has a PageList property .LineItems of class
MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
Another work type, MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Order has a PageList property .ItemsForVendor
of class MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
An item has a calculation .TotalPrice = .Quantity * .UnitPrice.
The application is experiencing behavior where the TotalPrice is calculating correctly for Requests
but not for Orders. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue? (Choose
One)
A. The expression is likely defined as a context-sensitive expression ("only when the top level
page is of the applies to class")
B. The expression is likely defined as backward chaining
C. The expression is likely defined as a context-free expression ("regardless of any page it is
contained in")
D. The expression is likely defined as forward chaining
Answer: A

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NO.3 A rule is shown in the Final Conflicts report after doing an upgrade. Which of the following
describe what could be done to resolve the conflict? (Choose Two)
A. The rule could be marked Final
B. The rule could be deleted or Withdrawn so that the standard version of the rule is executed
C. Do a SaveAs on the conflicting rule to a new name and update references to this new rule
D. The rule could be copied into the production RuleSet
E. The corresponding RuleSet could be locked
F. The rule could be copied into a more specific class
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 An application administrator has been sent a number of complaints that after nightly server
restarts the PRPC application is slow in the early morning. Which of the following actions can be
used to mitigate this issue? (Choose One)
A. Enable Assembly Avoidance
B. Restart System Pulse
C. Configure and execute Static Assembler
D. Increase the size of the Rule Cache
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have been asked to build a human resources application that facilitates the work required
to
support new hires. For each new hire, multiple tasks must be done, such as "Acquire Computer"
and "Setup Payroll". You are having trouble deciding if each of these tasks should be represented
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B. It must be possible for the completion of one task to be independent from the other
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D. It must be possible to configure security differently; those who can open "Acquire Computer"
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E. "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" require the capability to be reopened independently
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: PEGACCA
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified CPM Architect)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 Which of the following would you configure in order to specify the subset of properties that
can be included within dialog scripts. (Choose One)
A. Interaction driver rule
B. Decision table rule within the dialog class
C. Data source rule
D. Map value rule within the dialog class
Answer: C

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NO.2 When designing UI components, which of the following is NOT a best practice? (Choose One)
A. Know the standard screen resolution for end user desktops
B. Place required data entry so that the user can tab to complete them
C. Within process screens, use conditional displays
D. Use bold text and many colors to make important fields stand out
E. Avoid non-standard acronyms and abbreviations in captions
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following CANNOT be configured using the CPM Configuration Tools Wizard?
(Choose One)
A. Dialog scripts
B. Suggested processes
C. Coaching tips
D. Association of knowledge content to a user screen
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a best practice in CPM dialog management ________? (Choose
One)
A. Dialog rules should be contained in a separate RuleSet from other configuration such as flows
and flow actions
B. Dialog scripts should contain what to say; not what to do
C. Dialog scripts should include references to customer data
D. CSRs should be encouraged to configure personal dialog scripts
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of the following is not a valid result type when using the CPM portal search
function? (Choose One)
A. Knowledge content rules
B. Service item work objects/cases
C. External data sources such as accounts or contacts
D. Workbaskets (work queues)
Answer: D

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NO. 9 True or False, Flow-action-based dialog requires that a dialog rule be referenced from the
assignment and flow action within the workflow diagram.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of suggesting processes to a user during a customer
interaction? (Choose One)
A. Reduced user training time
B. Improved user productivity
C. Improved customer satisfaction
D. None. All of the above are benefits
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following steps is necessary in order to configure CPM portal search for an
external data source (such as account data from a legacy system)? (Choose One)
A. Enable PRPC work indexing on your system
B. Specify a search retrieval activity on the CPM data source rule
C. Modify the list view rule used for portal search to include your data source
Answer: B

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NO.7 True or False, To maintain backward compatibility with future CPM releases, you should not
override the workflows, flow actions, or sections used within CPM service items/processes.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 The text that displays to the user as the task name within a CPM Interaction Driver category
list is
__________. (Choose One)
A. The HeaderTitle field value that is defined within the service item class
B. The short description of the starting workflow for the service item
C. The short description of the Intent Task rule
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: PEGACSA_v6.2
Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 213 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-05

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NO.1 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database?
(Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with
Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format?
(Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during
development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the
BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the
Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the
data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape?
(Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is
executed
Answer: D

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NO.13 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external
application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a
______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.14 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to
support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: PEGACSA-v6.2

Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam)

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NO.1 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format? (Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a ______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.9 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

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NO.10 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.15 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.16 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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NO.17 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

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NO.19 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: PEGACSSA_v6.2

Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))

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NO.1 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some
of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your
design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A

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NO.3 A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a
select group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most
likely leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from Work-
E. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever
inputs change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A

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NO.6 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose
One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C

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NO.8 The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible for
executing the rules
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application "from scratch", when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A

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NO.14 Expressions that are backward chaining (set to "Whenever Used") execute when___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B

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NO.15 Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = 'US' .State='CA' .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PEGACCA

Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified CPM Architect)

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NO.1 The text that displays to the user as the task name within a CPM Interaction Driver category
list is
__________. (Choose One)
A. The HeaderTitle field value that is defined within the service item class
B. The short description of the starting workflow for the service item
C. The short description of the Intent Task rule
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a best practice in CPM dialog management ________? (Choose
One)
A. Dialog rules should be contained in a separate RuleSet from other configuration such as flows
and flow actions
B. Dialog scripts should contain what to say; not what to do
C. Dialog scripts should include references to customer data
D. CSRs should be encouraged to configure personal dialog scripts
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following would you configure in order to specify the subset of properties that
can be included within dialog scripts. (Choose One)
A. Interaction driver rule
B. Decision table rule within the dialog class
C. Data source rule
D. Map value rule within the dialog class
Answer: C

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NO.4 True or False, To maintain backward compatibility with future CPM releases, you should not
override the workflows, flow actions, or sections used within CPM service items/processes.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following steps is necessary in order to configure CPM portal search for an
external data source (such as account data from a legacy system)? (Choose One)
A. Enable PRPC work indexing on your system
B. Specify a search retrieval activity on the CPM data source rule
C. Modify the list view rule used for portal search to include your data source
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following CANNOT be configured using the CPM Configuration Tools Wizard?
(Choose One)
A. Dialog scripts
B. Suggested processes
C. Coaching tips
D. Association of knowledge content to a user screen
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following is not a valid result type when using the CPM portal search
function? (Choose One)
A. Knowledge content rules
B. Service item work objects/cases
C. External data sources such as accounts or contacts
D. Workbaskets (work queues)
Answer: D

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NO. 9 True or False, Flow-action-based dialog requires that a dialog rule be referenced from the
assignment and flow action within the workflow diagram.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of suggesting processes to a user during a customer
interaction? (Choose One)
A. Reduced user training time
B. Improved user productivity
C. Improved customer satisfaction
D. None. All of the above are benefits
Answer: D

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NO.8 When designing UI components, which of the following is NOT a best practice? (Choose One)
A. Know the standard screen resolution for end user desktops
B. Place required data entry so that the user can tab to complete them
C. Within process screens, use conditional displays
D. Use bold text and many colors to make important fields stand out
E. Avoid non-standard acronyms and abbreviations in captions
Answer: D

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