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Exam Code: 000-M97
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BigInsights Technical Mastery Test v1 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What mode is best suited for application developers?
A. Standalone (local) mode.
B. Pseudo-distributed mode.
C. Fully-distributed mode.
D. It does not matter, all are about the same.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will happen when a NameNode runs out of memory?
A. It will crash.
B. It will start swapping data to disk as long as swappiness is greater than 0.
C. It will move part of the workload to secondary name node.
D. It will start delaying some jobs to accommodate currently running jobs.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Hadoop is configured with FAIR scheduler. We have three queues defined : production, development,
and QA. The production queue has a minimum share defined as 5. Other queues do not have minimum
shares defined. QA has a weight defined as 2. Other queues do not have weight associated with them.
Assuming that Production queue has demand of 100 tasks, Development of 30 tasks, and QA of 25 tasks
with total of 30 tasks available in JobTracker for all queues, how many tasks per queue will be allocated.?
A. Production: 5, Development: 10, QA: 15
B. Production: 10, Development: 10, QA: 10
C. Production: 8, Development: 8, QA: 14
D. Production: 6, Development: 6, QA: 18
Answer: C

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NO.4 To help firms analyze text-based data, BigInsights provides which of the following?
A. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Pig.
B. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from HQL (Hive).
C. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Jaql.
D. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Flume.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All nodes in the cluster should have the same hardware.
B. Master nodes need to have more reliable hardware than slave nodes.
C. Slave nodes need to have more reliable hardware than master nodes.
D. All nodes in the cluster must have reliable hardware except for disks.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N11
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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NO.3 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between ____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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NO.4 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture (CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 50-663
Exam Name: Novell (Novell edirectory and active directory)
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Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Which statements about Windows 2000 native mode are true? (Choose 2.)
A. Native mode allows backward compatibility.
B. After you make the switch to native mode, it cannot be undone.
C. After you make the switch to native mode, you can switch back to mixed mode at any
time.
D. You can switch to native mode if there are Windows NT domain controllers within the
domain.
E. Native mode allows you to take advantage of all features and capabilities of Active
Directory.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Replicators
E. Administrators
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which statement defines the Windows 2000 Advanced Server term "scaling up"?
A. An increase in accessibility of a server via the LAN
B. Increasing the client access license count for a server
C. Distributing the load of network requests through server technology
D. The increased performance and capacity gained by adding processors and memory to
a server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which are advantages of the mandatory Windows 2000 Professional login process?
(Choose 2.)
A. It requires users to have passwords.
B. It allows users to have individual configurations.
C. It allows an individual to be a member of multiple groups.
D. It allows multiple users to be simultaneously logged in to the same Windows 2000
Professional machine.
E. It allows users to secure files on the local Windows 2000 Professional machine so
other local users can't access those files.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding the process of logging in to Windows 2000
Server? (Choose 2.)
A. The login process cannot be disabled.
B. A password for the Administrator user is required.
C. The Ctrl + Esc keystroke initiates the login process.
D. The Ctrl + Alt + Del keystroke initiates the login process.
E. The login process must be manually enabled when the workstation is connected to a
network.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which Registry subtree holds information about the active hardware profile?
A. HKEY_USER
B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
E. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding the initial user account on a Windows 2000
Professional workstation?
A. When this account is created, it cannot be deleted.
B. This account is manually created by the administrator.
C. This account can only be created on a Windows NT server.
D. This account must be created in order to create additional user accounts.
E. This account is created automatically if Windows 2000 Professional is installed as a
member of a workgroup.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which tasks can a Windows 2000 administrator perform by default? (Choose 3.)
A. Set up printing
B. Manage the file system
C. Create users and groups
D. Partition Active Directory containers
E. Create groups but not users in all domains
F. Perform administration tasks in all domains
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which objects displayed in ConsoleOne can be modified and allow you to add
eDirectory users to an Active Directory group? (Choose 2.)
A. Group
B. Server
C. Organization
D. eDirectory User
E. Organizational Unit
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Guests
B. Network Users
C. Administrators
D. Backup Operators
E. Domain Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Backup Operators
D. Domain Operators
E. Network Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 Which tasks can a Windows 2000 administrator perform by default on a Windows
2000 server? (Choose 3.)
A. Format a floppy disk
B. Manage security policies
C. Create shared directories
D. Merge eDirectory partitions
E. Perform administration tasks in all domains
F. Create partitions of Active Directory containers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 When would Windows 2000 Server be a good choice over Windows 2000
Professional? (Choose 2.)
A. When a web server is needed
B. When Terminal services are needed
C. When plug-and-play support is needed
D. When local security for files is needed
E. When multiple processors exist in a machine
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 When compared to Windows 2000 Advanced Server, Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server provides which advantages? (Choose 3.)
A. The Process Control tool
B. Support for up to 128 GB RAM
C. 4-node clustering and load balancing services
D. Support for Physical Address Extension (PAE)
E. Support for all Pentium III Coppermine Processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 What is the maximum RAM capacity of Microsoft Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server?
A. 1 GB
B. 16 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 64 GB
E. 128 GB
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your network environment includes 1 Windows 2000 server, 5 Windows 2000
workstations, 5 Macintosh computers, and 2 printers. You need to share company
records that are stored on the server. Which file system would you choose during a
Windows 2000 Server installation?
A. HPFS
B. NTFS
C. OS/2
D. FAT-16
E. FAT-32
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which are features of Windows 2000 Advanced Server? (Choose 2.)
A. It supports up to 4 GB RAM.
B. It supports multiple processors.
C. It provides clustering technologies.
D. It supports Windows 95 device drivers.
E. It supports RAID technology for software virus protection.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 What is required before eDirectory can be installed on Windows 2000? (Choose 2.)
A. NTFS
B. ConsoleOne
C. eDirectory manager
D. SLP Directory agent
E. Administrative rights
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 Erica needs guest access to a Windows 2000 server. What do you need to do to allow
Erica to log in using the Guest account?
A. Create the Guest user account.
B. You do not need to do anything.
C. Enable the Guest user account, which was created by default.
D. Create a user account for Erica and assign temporary rights to the Guest account.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which default user accounts are created on a Windows 2000 server? (Choose 2.)
A. Guest
B. Administrator
C. Backup Operator
D. Account Operator
E. Domain Administrator
Answer: A,B

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NO.21 You would like to run the default Microsoft Management Console. Enter the
command that you would use in the Open box to start this utility.
Answer: mmc

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NO.22 When a user logs in to Windows 2000 Professional, which component verifies that
the username and password are correct?
A. WinLogon
B. WinVerify
C. Local security database
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
E. Security Accounts Manager
Answer: C

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NO.23 What is the primary mechanism supporting the Kerberos v5 protocol?
A. Key Generation Center
B. Key Distribution Center
C. Ticket Granting Service
D. Key Distribution Control
E. Mutual Authentication Center
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Administrators
E. Backup Operators
Answer: C,E

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NO.25 Which 2 advantages are provided by Windows 2000 Advanced Server over
Windows 2000 Server? (Choose 2.)
A. Higher performance server capability
B. Internet Information Server 5.0 included
C. The ability to link servers to handle larger loads
D. Enhanced Microsoft Management Console functions
E. The ability to handle up to 10 processors and up to 8 GB RAM
Answer: A,C

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NO.26 Which are advantages of the mandatory Windows 2000 Professional login process?
(Choose 2.)
A. Users can have more than one account.
B. Users can have individual configurations.
C. Users are required to enter a password to access files.
D. Users can better share files with others on the network.
E. Users can better administer their NetWare file system rights.
Answer: A,B

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NO.27 Which group is only installed during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional
or a member server?
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Replicators
D. Power Users
E. Administrators
F. Backup Operators
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which statement is true regarding the HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG subtree in a
Windows 2000 Registry?
A. It holds information about software configurations.
B. It contains all configuration data about the computer.
C. It holds information about the active hardware profile.
D. It holds data about the current user logged in to the workstation.
E. It contains security information about all users in the directory database.
Answer: C

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NO.29 When installing Windows 2000 Professional, which of the following are members of
the Administrators local group by default? (Choose 2.)
A. Guests
B. Power Users
C. Administrator
D. Backup Operators
E. The initial user performing the installation
Answer: C,E

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NO.30 What Registry editor supports full editing of the Windows 2000 Registry?
A. REGEDIT
B. REGEDT32
C. REGEDIT64
D. Registry Manager Console (RMC)
E. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-604
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Government Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What tools are smart governments empowering staff and field workers with while safely securing
physical environments?
A. Video surveillance and mobile devices
B. Transportation and communications
C. Manpower surveillance and mobile devices
D. Internet and mobile surveillance devices
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does a pre-integrated and pre-tested stack of software products address in each project or
solution in the Government Framework.?
A. A set of products
B. The pain points
C. A set of standards
D. A set of goals
Answer: A

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NO.3 What can the IBM Government Industry Framework foundation platform also be used for?
A. Other objectives
B. Other training programs
C. Other industries
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-139
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Rational AppScan, Standard Ed)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What does a Cross-site Scripting vulnerability allow an attacker to do?
A. execute a malicious script on the Web server
B. change the Web server configuration
C. steal a users session tokens
D. drop database tables
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does an attacker exploit Web application vulnerabilities?
A. by hacking the firewall
B. by installing viruses on a users machine
C. by sending malicious HTTP requests
D. by sniffing the traffic between a user and the Web server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be accessible (e.g. *.bak,
"Copy of", *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

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NO.4 After 30 minutes your scan stops with an out-of-session error.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Redundant path limit was too low.
B. A parameter was not tracked.
C. Flash parsing was turned off.
D. Platform authentication was not configured.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-671
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Sales V1)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two of the following IBM xSeries servers listed below are equipped with an
intel Pentium 4 processor?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 335
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 When comparing the IBM ServeRAID-4Mx and ServRAID-4Lx adapters, which
feature is available on the ServeRAID-4Mx ONLY?
A. Ultra 160 SCSI
B. Dual Address Cycle (DAC)
C. 64-bit PCI 2.2 at 66/33 MHz interface
D. 64 MB battery-backed ECC data cache memory
Answer: D

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NO.3 Web-based management, DNS/DHCP support and e-mail alerts are functions of the
IBM__________
A. Remote Supervisor adapter
B. Netfinity Advanced System Management PCI adapter
C. xSeries 225 interated System Management function
D. xSeries 345 integrated System Management processor.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which IBM xSeries server is an affordable entry-level uniprocessor server with
rack-mount support provided by an optional rack conversion ket?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 335
D. xSeries 345
Answer: A

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NO.5 When comparing the high availability features of the xSeries 235 and xSeries 255
servers, which feature is a standard feature of the x235 ONLY?
A. Chipkill memory
B. Active PCI-X support
C. Hot swap hard disk drives
D. Integrated RAID-1 support
E. Integrated systems management processor
Answer: D

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NO.6 The technology built into most IBM xSeries servers that can drastically reduce
service time by visually guiding the technician to a faulty component is called
A. IBM Director
B. Serverguide
C. Light-path diagnostics.
D. Predictive failure analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which items from the following list are X-architecture Guiding Principles?
1- To drive and enhance industry standards
2- To make servers easier to service
3- To make servers easier to deploy and use
4- To make IBM servers easier to sell
5- To strive toward uninterrupted computing for intel processor-based servers
6- To lead the industry in driving down the cost of enterprise computing
A. 2,3,4,only
B. 1,3,5,6 only
C. 1,2,4,5, only
D. 2,5,6, only
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following system management functions is supported only by the
Remote Supervisor Adapter
A. e-mail alerts
B. Generate SNMP traps
C. IBM Director via LAN
D. Automatic shutdown/restart
Answer: A

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NO.9 Ten members of the Research staff in a small company have individual dial-up
connections to the Internet. This is costing the company a lot of money. Which
server type would provide the BEST solution to reduce the cost of internet access,
and at the same time allow the company to better manage their wide area
connections?
A. A centralized file server with a single, high-speed internet connection, managed by a
member of the IT team who downloads the pages required by the Research Department.
B. A company-wide proxy server with a single high-speed internetconnection, providing
internet access to all staff in the Research Department.
C. A database server, using an off-line dial-up connection, which caches and sorts the
pages required by the Research Department
D. An HTTP server which downloads and mirrors the previous day page requests from
the Research Department
Answer: B

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NO.10 A company wants to track applications installed on their network systems using a
dictionary file with many predefined software product files. They also want to
collect hardware and software data when a managed system is first discovered and
at reular intervals after that. Which of the following IBM Director features would
be used to perform this function?
A. Resource Monitoring
B. Inventory Management
C. Software DISTRIBUTION
D. DMI Browser
Answer: B

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NO.11 How many of the IBM xSeries 345 server PCI expansion slots are Active PCI slots?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.12 An ISP requires an ultra-dense 2-way high performance rack server to provide as
much capacity as possible in a crowded data center. The budget is tight so total cost
of ownership is a consideration. The customer needs a solution that is easy to install
and configure, and which makes adding or replacing servers simple. Which one of
the following IBM xSeries servers would best meet these requirements?
A. xSeries 305
B. xSeries 335
C. xSeries 345
D. xSeries 360
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is a RAID controller device that contains Fiber Channel
Interfaces to connect the host systems and disk drive enclosures?
A. EXP300
B. SAN FC Switch
C. FAST Storage Server
D. RXE-100 Remote Expansion Enclosure
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Proxy server is an example of what server type?
A. Centralized
B. Client/server
C. Device sharing
D. Web
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two 2 of the following IBM xSeries servers include a standard ISMP, and can
upgrade system management capabilities by installing a Remote Supervisor
Adapter?
A. xSeries 225
B. xSeries 235
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 345
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 What LAN hardware device is used to connect two network or systems?. This device
is protocol-independent but hardware-specific.
A. Bridge
B. Ateway
C. Repeater
D. Router
Answer: A

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NO.17 Capacity Manager ServeRaid Manager and cluster Systems Management are
comprehensive tools provided by which IBM Director feature?
A. Update Connector
B. Resource Monitoring
C. Electronic Service Agent
D. Director Extensions
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of ASMPs and ASM asapters that can be configured
into one ASM Interconnect Network?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: A

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NO.19 The IBM Director function that allows administrators to use a command line
session to execute commands on the managed system is __________
A. File transfer
B. Process management
C. Remote session
D. Remote control
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two of the following allow RAID-5E to provide better protection than the
standard RAID-5?
A. Hot-space defined as part of the array
B. More than one logical drive in the array
C. Stripes data and parity across all of the drives in the array
D. Two drives in the array could fail, but not at the same time.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: COG-105
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 BI Technical Specialist)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer wishes to secure all external dispatcher communications while continuing to use
non-secure internal dispatcher communications. What is true about this request?
A. It would require two gateway servers.
B. The Internal and External dispatcher URIs must use different ports.
C. The Internal and External dispatcher URIs must use the same port.
D. All the URI protocol settings must be changed from HTTP to HTTPS.
Answer: B

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NO.2 As it relates to the Cognos products, what is Garbage Collection (GC)?
A. JVM releasing objects back to memory.
B. Cognos 8 and CRN clearing up temp files.
C. Clearing up old Cognos 8 reports.
D. Removing unused report views.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When trying to save the configuration, an error is received stating that the Java Runtime
Environment has changed. What may be the cause of this error?
A. The OJDBC files have not been copied from the Oracle client to the Cognos installation directory.
B. The Content Manager has not been started.
C. Comdlg32.ocx has not been registered.
D. The configuration data was encrypted using a different JRE than the one currently used by the
Cognos 8 components.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is true about Core Dump files?
A. Are generated weekly in Cognos 8.
B. Contain a partial dump of the memory after Cognos 8 fails.
C. Indicate a serious problem with the program.
D. Occur when a processor core overheats.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Cognos 8 alternate gateway works with IBM HTTPD Server?
A. ISAPI
B. CGI
C. MOD
D. IDA
Answer: C

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NO.6 To setup database connectivity to the customer's corporate datastores, the installer must
ensure that the database API software is installed on which servers?
A. On all content manager servers.
B. On all web servers.
C. On all report servers.
D. On all report servers and on all content manager servers
Answer: C

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NO.7 When viewing the c8_location/webapps/p2pd/WEB-INF/lib directory during an Oracle 10g
Content Store configuration which file should be removed before installing either ojdbc14.jar or
ojdbc5.jar?
A. classes12.zip
B. classes14.jar
C. classes12.jar
D. ojdbc14.zip
Answer: C

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NO.8 Each time a configuration is altered and saved, date-stamped versions of these two
configuration files are automatically saved in the c8_location/configuration directory. What are
these two files?
A. cogformat.xsd and cqeconfig.xsd
B. cogstartup.xml and coglocale.xml
C. cogserver.xml and cogstartup.xml
D. cogstartup.xsd and coglocale.xsd
Answer: B

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