2013年10月1日星期二

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Exam Code: 50-707
Exam Name: Novell (Novell Open Enterprise Server for Netware Adanced Admin)
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Total Q&A: 186 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 You are migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare. As a part of the migration, you need to
make sure that the destination server assumes the IP address of the source server. Which files should
you edit with the Migration Wizard to do this? (Choose 2.)
A. Sys:\Etc\Hosts
B. Sys:\Etc\Gateways
C. Sys:\System\Config.ncf
D. C:\Nwserver\Startup.ncf
E. Sys:\System\Attypes.cfg
F. Sys:\System\Autoexec.ncf
G. C:\Nwserver\Autoexec.ncf
Answer: AF

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NO.2 Which server console command will load the NSS Volume Locator Database Management service on
an OES NetWare server?
A. VLDB
B. NVLDB
C. VLDBM
D. VLRPR
E. NVLDBM
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which utility is used to set the DFS Management Context?
A. NSSMU
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. DFS Manager
E. Remote Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 After migrating a NetWare 6.5 server to another NetWare 6.5 server, which directories do you need to
copy from the migration backup directory to the corresponding directories on the destination server?
(Choose 2.)
A. Sys:\Sys.mig\Etc
B. Sys:\Sys.mig\Java
C. Sys:\Sys.mig\Ipconf
D. Sys:\Sys.mig\System
E. Sys:\Sys.mig\Nds.001
F. Sys:\Sys.mig\Apache2
Answer: BC

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NO.5 To balance the load in your network, you want to split heavily used volume USERS, an NSS volume, on
FS1. You decide to split the volume at the USERS:\EXTERNAL\CONTRACTORS subdirectory. The
destination volume is an NSS volume on server FS2. Given that both servers are OES NetWare servers
in the same DFS Management context, can this be done?
A. No, you must apply Support Pack 1.1 or later.
B. No, you can't split a volume at the subdirectory level.
C. No, you can't split an NSS volume to another NSS volume.
D. No, the servers must reside in different DFS Management Contexts.
E. Yes, the prerequisite requirements for this move request have been met.
F. No, split operations for NSS volumes can only occur between servers in different contexts.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which instance of Apache Web Server running on an OES NetWare server is used to manage other
services on the server, such as iPrint and eGuide?
A. Slave Instance
B. Public Instance
C. Master Instance
D. Management Instance
E. TCP Wrapper Instance
F. Administration Instance
Answer: F

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NO.7 Which versions of NetWare are supported as source server operating systems by Migration Wizard
8.1? (Choose 3.)
A. NetWare 3.1
B. NetWare 3.2
C. NetWare 4.1
D. NetWare 4.11
E. NetWare 4.2
F. NetWare 5.0
G. NetWare 5.1
H. NetWare 6.5
Answer: FGH

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NO.8 During a migration to OES NetWare, where are important files from the source server's Sys volume
saved on the destination server?
A. Sys:\Sys.mig
B. Sys:\Sys.bak
C. Sys:\System\Sys.bak
D. Sys:\Public\Sys.mig
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement best describes a multitasking operating system?
A. Data is distributed between processors to prevent over-utilization.
B. A single-processor can run 2 or more programs at the same time.
C. Multiple threads can be run on different processors at the same time.
D. Application threads can simultaneously be executed on different processors.
E. A system can determine if a processor is over-utilized and initiate load balancing.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare. You've reached the eDirectory migration
portion of the Migration Wizard. The first step in this process edits the server name in several
configuration files on the destination server. Which files are included in this process? (Choose 2.)
A. Ctx.cfg
B. Csl.cfg
C. Slpda.cfg
D. Snmp.cfg
E. Cifsctx.cfg
F. Attypes.cfg
G. Startup.ncf
H. Rootcert.der
I. Timesync.cfg
Answer: DI

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NO.11 Which SET parameter will cause the server to attempt to recover from all software and hardware
abends, wait a specified amount of time, and then restart the operating system?
A. SET AUTO RESTART AFTER ABEND = 0
B. SET AUTO RESTART AFTER ABEND = 1
C. SET AUTO RESTART AFTER ABEND = 2
D. SET AUTO RESTART AFTER ABEND = 3
Answer: C

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NO.12 You're migrating a NetWare 5.0 server named DA4 to OES NetWare. DA4 resides in the DA-TREE in
the TYO.DA context. It has been configured to use the IPX protocol and uses the 802.2 frame type. The
destination OES NetWare server has been assigned a server name of DA4-TEMP. This server has also
been configured to use the IPX protocol with the 802.3 frame type. It resides in the .TEMP context in the
TEMP-TREE eDirectory tree. DA4 and DA4-TEMP are unable to communication with each other. What
will fix this problem?
A. Configure the IP protocol on DA4-TEMP.
B. Rename the TEMP-TREE eDirectory tree to DA-TREE.
C. Configure both servers to use the same frame type.
D. Install DA4-TEMP into the TYO.DA context in the TEMP-TREE eDirectory tree.
E. Rename the DA4-TEMP server to DA4, but leave it in the TEMP-TREE eDirectory tree.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which server console command is used to start the ArkManager service on OES NetWare?
A. ARKMAN
B. ARKSTART
C. ARKMANAGER
D. ARKMANSTART
Answer: B

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NO.14 What can a DFS junction point to?
A. A CIFS sharepoint.
B. A subdirectory on a volume on the local server.
C. A subdirectory on a volume on a remote server in the same eDirectory tree.
D. A subdirectory on a volume on a remote server in a different eDirectory tree.
E. The root directory of a volume on a remote server in the same eDirectory tree.
F. The root directory of a volume on a remote server in a different eDirectory tree.
Answer: E

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NO.15 While migrating a NetWare 6 server to OES NetWare, you see errors indicating Nuwagent.nlm won't
load. Which server console command will fix this problem?
A. SMDR NEW
B. KILL NUWAGENT
C. REINITIALIZE SYSTEM
D. LOAD NUWAGENT.NLM -NEW
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which changes are made to the destination server's Autoexec.ncf file by the Migration Wizard during
the migration process? (Choose 2.)
A. The time server type is changed to Single Reference.
B. The server name is changed to match the name of the source server.
C. The CIFS user context is changed to match the CIFS user context of the source server.
D. The bindery context value is changed to match the bindery context used on source server.
E. The time zone value is changed to match that of the closest Single Reference time provider.
F. The server ID is modified to match the IPX internal net number or server ID of the source server.
Answer: BF

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NO.17 Which server console command will remove a Backup Domain Controller (BDC) from a CIFS domain?
A. CIFS REMOVE BDC
B. CIFS BDC REMOVE
C. CIFS DOMAIN LEAVE
D. CIFS DOMAIN DELETE
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare. The source server name is SLCFIN and is
located in FINANCE. SLC. DA in the DA-TREE. You install the pre-migration OES NetWare server as
SLCFIN located in .DA in the TEMP-TREE. Why will the migration fail?
A. The source tree name must be the same as the destination tree name.
B. The source server name can't be the same as the destination server name.
C. The source server context must be the same as the destination server context.
D. The source tree name and the source server context must be the same as the destination tree name
and destination tree context.
E. You can't migrate a NetWare 5.1 server directly to OES NetWare. You must first upgrade it to a
NetWare 6.0 server, then migrate it to OES NetWare.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which option moves an existing NetWare server's file system and the eDirectory database to a
different computer?
A. Remote Upgrade
B. In-place Upgrade
C. Down-Server Upgrade
D. Across-the-Wire Upgrade
E. Across-the-Wire Migration
F. Compatibility-Mode Migration
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which files are used by the NSS VLDB service to track the location of NSS volumes in the eDirectory
tree? (Choose 2.)
A. VLRPR.CFG
B. VLDB. NSS
C. VLDB. MDB
D. VLDB. CONF
E. VLRPR.LOG
F. VLDBCFG. DAT
Answer: EF

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NO.21 You need to repair the Volume Locator Database on your OES NetWare server. You've accessed the
properties of the server object in ConsoleOne and have selected the Repair button on the Supported
Services > NSS VLDB tab. Which repair option will restore the last saved copy of your VLDB database
backup files?
A. Restore
B. Low-Level Repair
C. Rebuild Database
D. Repair Database from Backup
E. Get Database From Another Replica
Answer: B

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NO.22 You manage a single-server network for a small business. Currently, your server is running NetWare
5.1. You need to implement OES NetWare. You don't have the budget to purchase additional hardware.
Which option is the best method for implementing OES NetWare?
A. In-place upgrade
B. In-place migration
C. Across-the-wire migration
D. Compatibility-mode upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which command can be entered at the server console of a CIFS Backup Domain Controller (BDC) to
delete an entire CIFS domain?
A. CIFS DELETE BDC
B.CIFS BDC REMOVE
C. CIFS DOMAIN LEAVE
D. CIFS DOMAIN DELETE
E. A domain can only be deleted from the server console of the domain's PDC.
Answer: E

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NO.24 You want to add a new volume to your OES NetWare server. You've installed a 200 GB SCSI hard disk
drive in the system. You plan to create a single partition on this drive. You plan to create a new NSS pool
on the server and add the new partition to it. You plan to create a single NSS volume named
EXTRA_SPACE in this pool. You plan to use the overbooking feature of NSS to allocate 275 GB of space
to the EXTRA_SPACE volume. Can you do this?
A. Yes, all NSS requirements have been met.
B. No, NSS pools must be composed of two or more partitions.
C. No, the size of a single volume in an NSS pool can not exceed the size of the pool.
D. No, the overbooked size of an NSS volume can't exceed 120% of the size of its NSS pool.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which server console command is used to verify the consistency of the cryptographic keys on your
server required to communicate with other servers in the tree?
A. LOAD SECURE. NLM
B. LOAD CONFIG. NLM
C. LOAD SDIDIAG. NLM
D. LOAD MONITOR.NLM
E. LOAD PKICHECK.NLM
F. LOAD SDINOTES.NLM
G. LOAD SECUREDIAG. NLM
Answer: C

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NO.26 You have configured a DFS Management Context with the VLDB service running on DA1. In the
SHARED directory on DA1's DATA volume, you created a junction to the root of the VOL1 volume on DA2.
You then created a CIFS share for the SHARED directory and granted the appropriate rights to your user
and group objects to access the directory. When users access the junction from their Windows 2000
Professional workstations without the Novell Client installed, it fails to take them to VOL1 on DA2. Which
is the resolution to this problem?
A. Load VLDB. NLM on DA2.
B. Add a VLDB replica to DA2.
C. Enable DFS support for CIFS clients.
D. Upgrade the workstations to Windows XP Home or Professional.
E. Run the VERIFY utility to check the integrity of the pool where VOL1 resides on DA2.
Answer: C

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NO.27 You need to migrate your existing NetWare server, which is running NetWare 5.0, to NetWare 6.0.
You've installed Migration Wizard 8.1 on your Windows 2000 Professional workstation, which also has the
Novell Client 4.91 installed. You've installed the latest Support Packs on both your source and destination
servers. Does this scenario meet Migration Wizard 8.1 system requirements?
A. Yes, all system requirements have been met.
B. No, you need to bind IPX on the destination server.
C. No, Migration Wizard 8 doesn't support Novell Client 4.83.
D. No, Migration Wizard 8 doesn't support NetWare 5.0 source servers.
E. No, Migration Wizard 8 doesn't support Windows 2000 Professional.
F. No, Migration Wizard 8 doesn't support NetWare 6.0 destination servers.
G. No, you shouldn't have installed a Support Pack on the destination server.
Answer: A

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NO.28 The Begin NDS/eDir Migration step in your NetWare 6 to OES NetWare migration failed. The
destination server did not reboot and take on the name and identity of the source server. You now need to
restore Directory Services on the source server. In what file did the Migration Wizard back up your
eDirectory information on the source server?
A. Sys:\System\Nds.bak
B. Sys:\System\eDir.bak
C. Sys:\_Netware\Nds.bak
D. Sys:\System\Nuw30\Ndsbu
E. Sys:\System\Nuw30\eDirbu
Answer: D

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NO.29 You need to grant the IS.SLC. DA container Read and File Scan rights to the Data:\Apps directory on
your OES NetWare server. Which utilities could you use to do this? (Choose 2.)
A. Flag
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. ConsoleOne
E. Rights Manager
F. Remote Manager
Answer: DF

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NO.30 Which Distributed File System component maps the physical location of the NSS volumes in the
eDirectory tree?
A. GUIDs
B. Junctions
C. VLDB Database
D. DFS Management Context
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 50-877
Exam Name: Novell (Cni-foundations of novell Networking:netware 6)
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Total Q&A: 193 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 How are file system effective rights calculated?
A.All rights granted to the user explicitly and through other objects, minus IRFs
B.Between explicit assignments and assignments through other objects the most restrictive rights are
applied, minus IRFs
C.Between explicit assignments and assignments through other objects the least restrictive rights are
applied, minus IRFs
D.The least restrictive rights granted to the user through eDirectory and the most restrictive granted to the
user through the file system, minus IRFs
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding setting identifier variables in login scripts? (Choose 2.)
A.They must be written in initial caps.
B.They must be written in lower case.
C.They must be written in upper case.
D.They must preceded by the pound (#) sign.
E.They must be preceded by the percent (%) sign.
F.They must be preceded by the underscore (_) sign.
Correct:C E

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NO.3 The Rhernandez user object exists in the DEL.DIGITALAIR container. Which is an example of a
typeless distinguished name for Rhernandez?
A.RHERNANDEZ..
B.CN=RHERNANDEZ
C.RHERNANDEZ.DIGITALAIR
D..RHERNANDEZ.DEL.DIGITALAIR
E..CN=RHERNANDEZ.OU=DEL.O=DIGITALAIR
Correct:D

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NO.4 In an NDPS printing environment, which utility do you use to configure event notification?
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Remote Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
Correct:E

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NO.5 You are using the default configuration on your server. To access Web Manager from your
workstation, you open a browser, enter the server's IP address, and then enter which port number?
A.443
B.636
C.2200
D.8008
E.8009
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which utility's only function is to set directory and file attributes?
A.Flag
B.Filer
C.NDIR
D.NCOPY
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which MAP command creates a search drive in the last possible search position?
A.MAP L16:=.volume.ou.organization:path
B.MAP S16:=.volume.ou.organization:path
C.MAP S16:=.path:volume.ou.organization
D.MAP S26:=.volume.ou.organization:path
E.MAP S26:=.path:volume.ou.organization
Correct:B

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NO.8 In an NDPS environment, which type of notification needs to be configured for a printer
operator to be notified when intervention is required?
A.Popup
B.Log-file
C.Job-owner
D.Programmatic
E.Interested-party
Correct:E

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding the Public trustee? (Choose 2.)
A.The Public trustee is the tree object.
B.By default, all eDirectory objects are security equivalent to Public.
C.By default, Public allows users to view any other object in the tree before authenticating.
D.By default, users must be authenticated before receiving rights through the Public trustee.
E.Any rights assigned by the tree object take precedence to rights assigned by the Public trustee.
Correct:B C

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NO.10 Enter the console command that improves security by not allowing a malicious NLM to be run
from the floppy disk drive. Answer:
A.SECURECONSOLE
Correct:A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit Button to Begin. The Exhibit contains the Novell Client for Windows 2000
property page. Which tab allows you to control the configuration setting of Network
Neighborhood to hide the server page?
A.Client
B.Advanced Login
C.Default Capture
D.Location Profiles
E.Advanced Menu Settings
Correct:E

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NO.12 Someone is trying to access your network by logging in as Admin. Which is the simplest and
most effective method for preventing this type of security breach?
A.Hide the Admin object.
B.Rename the Admin object.
C.Use an IRF to prohibit global access.
D.Place an intruder detection limit on the Admin account.
E.Make another user security equivalent to the Admin object.
Correct:B

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NO.13 Which is the top-most object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Tree object
B.Domain object
C.Country object
D.Organization object
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which statements regarding login scripts are true? (Choose 2.)
A.The default login script can be edited.
B.Only one profile login script per user is allowed.
C.It is recommended to use user login scripts rather than container login scripts.
D.If the user login script is executed, the default login script is never executed.
E.Even if a user's parent container does not have a login script, a different container login script can be
executed for that user.
Correct:B D

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NO.15 Which objects can be children of the tree object? (Choose 2.)
A.Admin
B.Country
C.Organization
D.License Container
E.Organizational unit
Correct:B C

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NO.16 Which are characteristics of a controlled access printer? (Choose 2.)
A.It has low security.
B.It provides plug-and print capabilities.
C.It allows for little administrative configuration.
D.It is created and administered as an eDirectory object.
E.It offers a full range of event and status notification options.
Correct:D E

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NO.17 What is used to load the print service manager?
A.iManager
B.ConsoleOne
C.NDPS Broker
D.Server console prompt
Correct:D

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NO.18 Which email program only offers a client side (front-end) application?
A.Lotus
B.Eudora
C.Exchange
D.GroupWise
Correct:B

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NO.19 Click the Point-and-Click button to begin. You are setting up a GroupWise rule to forward all
messages received from your manager. Click the button or option that allows you to forward the
message.
Correct:

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NO.20 Click the Drag-and-Drop button to begin. Match each NetWare 6 feature with its description.
Correct:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4

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NO.1 What mode is best suited for application developers?
A. Standalone (local) mode.
B. Pseudo-distributed mode.
C. Fully-distributed mode.
D. It does not matter, all are about the same.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will happen when a NameNode runs out of memory?
A. It will crash.
B. It will start swapping data to disk as long as swappiness is greater than 0.
C. It will move part of the workload to secondary name node.
D. It will start delaying some jobs to accommodate currently running jobs.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Hadoop is configured with FAIR scheduler. We have three queues defined : production, development,
and QA. The production queue has a minimum share defined as 5. Other queues do not have minimum
shares defined. QA has a weight defined as 2. Other queues do not have weight associated with them.
Assuming that Production queue has demand of 100 tasks, Development of 30 tasks, and QA of 25 tasks
with total of 30 tasks available in JobTracker for all queues, how many tasks per queue will be allocated.?
A. Production: 5, Development: 10, QA: 15
B. Production: 10, Development: 10, QA: 10
C. Production: 8, Development: 8, QA: 14
D. Production: 6, Development: 6, QA: 18
Answer: C

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NO.4 To help firms analyze text-based data, BigInsights provides which of the following?
A. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Pig.
B. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from HQL (Hive).
C. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Jaql.
D. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Flume.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All nodes in the cluster should have the same hardware.
B. Master nodes need to have more reliable hardware than slave nodes.
C. Slave nodes need to have more reliable hardware than master nodes.
D. All nodes in the cluster must have reliable hardware except for disks.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N11
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )
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Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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NO.3 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between ____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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NO.4 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture (CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which statements about Windows 2000 native mode are true? (Choose 2.)
A. Native mode allows backward compatibility.
B. After you make the switch to native mode, it cannot be undone.
C. After you make the switch to native mode, you can switch back to mixed mode at any
time.
D. You can switch to native mode if there are Windows NT domain controllers within the
domain.
E. Native mode allows you to take advantage of all features and capabilities of Active
Directory.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Replicators
E. Administrators
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which statement defines the Windows 2000 Advanced Server term "scaling up"?
A. An increase in accessibility of a server via the LAN
B. Increasing the client access license count for a server
C. Distributing the load of network requests through server technology
D. The increased performance and capacity gained by adding processors and memory to
a server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which are advantages of the mandatory Windows 2000 Professional login process?
(Choose 2.)
A. It requires users to have passwords.
B. It allows users to have individual configurations.
C. It allows an individual to be a member of multiple groups.
D. It allows multiple users to be simultaneously logged in to the same Windows 2000
Professional machine.
E. It allows users to secure files on the local Windows 2000 Professional machine so
other local users can't access those files.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding the process of logging in to Windows 2000
Server? (Choose 2.)
A. The login process cannot be disabled.
B. A password for the Administrator user is required.
C. The Ctrl + Esc keystroke initiates the login process.
D. The Ctrl + Alt + Del keystroke initiates the login process.
E. The login process must be manually enabled when the workstation is connected to a
network.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which Registry subtree holds information about the active hardware profile?
A. HKEY_USER
B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
E. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding the initial user account on a Windows 2000
Professional workstation?
A. When this account is created, it cannot be deleted.
B. This account is manually created by the administrator.
C. This account can only be created on a Windows NT server.
D. This account must be created in order to create additional user accounts.
E. This account is created automatically if Windows 2000 Professional is installed as a
member of a workgroup.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which tasks can a Windows 2000 administrator perform by default? (Choose 3.)
A. Set up printing
B. Manage the file system
C. Create users and groups
D. Partition Active Directory containers
E. Create groups but not users in all domains
F. Perform administration tasks in all domains
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which objects displayed in ConsoleOne can be modified and allow you to add
eDirectory users to an Active Directory group? (Choose 2.)
A. Group
B. Server
C. Organization
D. eDirectory User
E. Organizational Unit
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Guests
B. Network Users
C. Administrators
D. Backup Operators
E. Domain Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Backup Operators
D. Domain Operators
E. Network Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 Which tasks can a Windows 2000 administrator perform by default on a Windows
2000 server? (Choose 3.)
A. Format a floppy disk
B. Manage security policies
C. Create shared directories
D. Merge eDirectory partitions
E. Perform administration tasks in all domains
F. Create partitions of Active Directory containers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 When would Windows 2000 Server be a good choice over Windows 2000
Professional? (Choose 2.)
A. When a web server is needed
B. When Terminal services are needed
C. When plug-and-play support is needed
D. When local security for files is needed
E. When multiple processors exist in a machine
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 When compared to Windows 2000 Advanced Server, Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server provides which advantages? (Choose 3.)
A. The Process Control tool
B. Support for up to 128 GB RAM
C. 4-node clustering and load balancing services
D. Support for Physical Address Extension (PAE)
E. Support for all Pentium III Coppermine Processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 What is the maximum RAM capacity of Microsoft Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server?
A. 1 GB
B. 16 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 64 GB
E. 128 GB
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your network environment includes 1 Windows 2000 server, 5 Windows 2000
workstations, 5 Macintosh computers, and 2 printers. You need to share company
records that are stored on the server. Which file system would you choose during a
Windows 2000 Server installation?
A. HPFS
B. NTFS
C. OS/2
D. FAT-16
E. FAT-32
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which are features of Windows 2000 Advanced Server? (Choose 2.)
A. It supports up to 4 GB RAM.
B. It supports multiple processors.
C. It provides clustering technologies.
D. It supports Windows 95 device drivers.
E. It supports RAID technology for software virus protection.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 What is required before eDirectory can be installed on Windows 2000? (Choose 2.)
A. NTFS
B. ConsoleOne
C. eDirectory manager
D. SLP Directory agent
E. Administrative rights
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 Erica needs guest access to a Windows 2000 server. What do you need to do to allow
Erica to log in using the Guest account?
A. Create the Guest user account.
B. You do not need to do anything.
C. Enable the Guest user account, which was created by default.
D. Create a user account for Erica and assign temporary rights to the Guest account.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which default user accounts are created on a Windows 2000 server? (Choose 2.)
A. Guest
B. Administrator
C. Backup Operator
D. Account Operator
E. Domain Administrator
Answer: A,B

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NO.21 You would like to run the default Microsoft Management Console. Enter the
command that you would use in the Open box to start this utility.
Answer: mmc

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NO.22 When a user logs in to Windows 2000 Professional, which component verifies that
the username and password are correct?
A. WinLogon
B. WinVerify
C. Local security database
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
E. Security Accounts Manager
Answer: C

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NO.23 What is the primary mechanism supporting the Kerberos v5 protocol?
A. Key Generation Center
B. Key Distribution Center
C. Ticket Granting Service
D. Key Distribution Control
E. Mutual Authentication Center
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Administrators
E. Backup Operators
Answer: C,E

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NO.25 Which 2 advantages are provided by Windows 2000 Advanced Server over
Windows 2000 Server? (Choose 2.)
A. Higher performance server capability
B. Internet Information Server 5.0 included
C. The ability to link servers to handle larger loads
D. Enhanced Microsoft Management Console functions
E. The ability to handle up to 10 processors and up to 8 GB RAM
Answer: A,C

Novell   50-663   50-663 questions

NO.26 Which are advantages of the mandatory Windows 2000 Professional login process?
(Choose 2.)
A. Users can have more than one account.
B. Users can have individual configurations.
C. Users are required to enter a password to access files.
D. Users can better share files with others on the network.
E. Users can better administer their NetWare file system rights.
Answer: A,B

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NO.27 Which group is only installed during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional
or a member server?
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Replicators
D. Power Users
E. Administrators
F. Backup Operators
Answer: D

Novell certification   50-663   50-663

NO.28 Which statement is true regarding the HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG subtree in a
Windows 2000 Registry?
A. It holds information about software configurations.
B. It contains all configuration data about the computer.
C. It holds information about the active hardware profile.
D. It holds data about the current user logged in to the workstation.
E. It contains security information about all users in the directory database.
Answer: C

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NO.29 When installing Windows 2000 Professional, which of the following are members of
the Administrators local group by default? (Choose 2.)
A. Guests
B. Power Users
C. Administrator
D. Backup Operators
E. The initial user performing the installation
Answer: C,E

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NO.30 What Registry editor supports full editing of the Windows 2000 Registry?
A. REGEDIT
B. REGEDT32
C. REGEDIT64
D. Registry Manager Console (RMC)
E. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-604
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Government Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 )
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 What tools are smart governments empowering staff and field workers with while safely securing
physical environments?
A. Video surveillance and mobile devices
B. Transportation and communications
C. Manpower surveillance and mobile devices
D. Internet and mobile surveillance devices
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does a pre-integrated and pre-tested stack of software products address in each project or
solution in the Government Framework.?
A. A set of products
B. The pain points
C. A set of standards
D. A set of goals
Answer: A

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NO.3 What can the IBM Government Industry Framework foundation platform also be used for?
A. Other objectives
B. Other training programs
C. Other industries
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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2013年9月30日星期一

Latest IBM 000-139 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 000-139
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Rational AppScan, Standard Ed)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What does a Cross-site Scripting vulnerability allow an attacker to do?
A. execute a malicious script on the Web server
B. change the Web server configuration
C. steal a users session tokens
D. drop database tables
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does an attacker exploit Web application vulnerabilities?
A. by hacking the firewall
B. by installing viruses on a users machine
C. by sending malicious HTTP requests
D. by sniffing the traffic between a user and the Web server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be accessible (e.g. *.bak,
"Copy of", *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

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NO.4 After 30 minutes your scan stops with an out-of-session error.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Redundant path limit was too low.
B. A parameter was not tracked.
C. Flash parsing was turned off.
D. Platform authentication was not configured.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C

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