2013年10月5日星期六

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Exam Code: 1Z0-874
Exam Name: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part II)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-05

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NO.1 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database.
You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and
why they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra
|
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment
|
| Name | char(35) | | | |
|
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | |
|
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
Which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause.
A temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the
SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world. City to it and preload the index.?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN ...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL
SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.14 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and
processed later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.16 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.18 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_TBW45_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-05

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding BEx Query Designer are correct? (Choose three)
A. Before defining a formula, you must ensure you have already created any restricted key figures that will
be referenced in the formula.
B. You can only drag and drop multiple characteristics into the query definition if they come from the same
dimension.
C. You can save a query that contains errors.
D. If a query contains errors, the system provides information to help you correct them, including menu
options that may be suitable.
E. You can maintain many of the properties of multiple characteristics or key figures simultaneously.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 Characteristic value variables...
A. ...are created in the query definition and are therefore only available in that query definition.
B. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of the
same InfoProvider.
C. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of
InfoProviders containing this characteristic.
D. ...can be created for global use on an InfoProvider level, and can be created for local use in the query
definition.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in their SAP
NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Why are variables used in queries? (Choose three)
A. To limit the scope of a report and improve performance.
B. To improve the reliability of the results.
C. To limit the scope of a report and make it more targeted to a user or group of users.
D. To reduce the number of query definitions by having one query satisfy the needs of many users.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static snap-shots of
data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which of the following are valid navigation steps in reporting in SAP NetWeaver BI? (Choose three)
A. Swap one characteristic with another.
B. Filter on a specific characteristic value.
C. Return to Start.
D. Sum and Filter.
Answer: A,B,C

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formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets
E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.12 Where can variables be created? (Choose two)
A. In the query definition where they are needed.
B. In the BEx Web Application Designer, in the "Data Provider" field.
C. While using a web browser to view query results.
D. When defining exceptions and conditions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a broadcasting
distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this scenario, which
of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is a potential
conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area occupied by
the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second query.
Answer: C

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NO.1 A GR is used for goods received from which of the following scenarios:
(Chooseall that apply)
A. External procurement from a vendor
B. Stock transfer
C. Transfer posting
D. From a production order
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Enterprise Services Architecture (ESA) enables business innovation by (chooseall that apply):
A. Leveraging existing IT assets
B. Reducing total cost of ownership
C. Increasing time to implementation
D. Maximizing agility
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 In material planning, the MRP views and the Warehouse Management views mustbe
created.(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Goods receipt into stock in quality inspection can be preplanned in which of thefollowing. (Choose all
that apply)
A. In the Material master
B. On the GR
C. On the PO
D. On the Vendor Info record
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 MySAP Business Suite includes.?(choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.6 Which of the following are available in LIS? (Choose all that apply)
A. SIS
B. PURCHIS
C. TIS
D. PMIS
E. INVCO
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.7 The basis functions in SAP are provided by (choose the correct answer):
A. SAP XI
B. SAP EP
C. SAP Web AS
D. SAP BI
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are item categories for a BOM. (Choose all that apply)
A. Stock item
B. Class item
C. Variable-size item
D. Inventory item
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 The subareas of People Integration in NetWeaver include (choose all that apply):
A. Integration broker
B. Collaboration
C. Portal infrastructure
D. Multi-channel access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following describe data and transactions in the SAP system?
(Choose all that apply)
A. A document is created for each transaction carried out in the system
B. Transaction codes determine the relevant master data
C. Master data ensure the redundancy of data in the system
D. Applicable organizational elements must be assigned for each transaction
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 A purchasing group (choose all that apply):
A. Is assigned to a purchasing organization
B. Represent a individual or group of buyers
C. Are responsible for certain purchasing activities
D. Are assigned in the material master data
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 The information integration component of NetWeaver include which of thefollowing (pick one):
A. SAP EP
B. SAP BI
C. SAP XI
D. Microsoft.Net
E. SAP PLM
Answer: B

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NO.13 What of the following determines the views available when creating a material master? (Choose the
correct answer)
A. Info type
B. Item category
C. Material type
D. Movement type
Answer: C

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NO.14 Material master records must be maintained for consumable materials.(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following are Account Assignment categories for consumablematerials?
(Chooseall that apply)
A. COGS
B. Cost center
C. Project
D. Profit Center
E. Asset
F. Sales order
Answer: B,C,D,E,F

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008)
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NO.1 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu
options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two
methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add
to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a
number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal
Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal
report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying
data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal
user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address
your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects
Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort
Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international
sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional
formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group
Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report
setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those
countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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NO.11 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations
in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field
Object from the
Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either
a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000.
You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition.?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition =
"Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage
=
"Enabled"
Answer: A

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NO.17 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which
method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A. You do not have access to the database.
B. The Page Header section is suppressed.
C. A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D. You have not saved the report with data.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer
Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer
Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show
Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A. Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay
Following Sections.
B. Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay
Following Sections.
D. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if
duplicated.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

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5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 あなたは、G / L 文書を投稿しました。 テキストフィールドで、 転記キーのフィールド
の状態が必要なエントリと G/ L 勘定のフィ ールドステータスに設定されているが、隠し項
目に設定されています。投稿の間に何が起こりますか。
A. 文書が掲載される。
B. 警告メッセージが 示される。
C. エラーメッセージ が示される。
D. テキストフィール ドは隠される。
Answer: C

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NO.2 クロス会社コー ドの原価計算を設定するための前提条件は何ですか。 (2 つ選択してく
ださい)
A. 同じ会計年度バリアントは、すべての会社コードに使用される。
B. 同じ通貨はすべて の会社コードに使用される。
C. オープン期間の同 じバリアントはすべての会社コードに使用され る。
D. アカウントの同じ チャートはすべての会社コードに使用される。
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 下記タスク ・ タイプのどれが閉じる コ ックピ ットかスケジ ュ ール ・ マネージャー に よ
ってサポートされていますか。 (3 つ選択してください)
A. スプレッドシート
B. 処理
C. 調整キー
D. ノート( 注意かマイルストーンとして)
E. 変形を備えた、あるいは変形のないプログラム
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 あなたの主要な元帳(元帳解決)で は 、貸借対照表は会社 コ ードと部分のために 作 成
されなければなりません。
どのカスタマイズするセッティングを作る必要がありますか。 (2 つ選択してください)
A. 留保利益勘定を定義する。
B. 2 つの留保利益勘定を定義し、あなたの P &L 勘定に割り当てる。
C. あなたのリーディ ング元帳へのセグメント報告のシナリオを割り当てる。
D. 販売会計のコスト をアクティブにする。
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 資産会計のレポートの 場合、どのオ ブ ジェクトには、使用 す る必要があり、必要 に 応
じて、ソートレベルおよび/ または集計レベルを決定するためにカスタマイズしますか。
A. 償却領域
B. ソートキー
C. ソートバリアント
D. 評価領域
Answer: C

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NO.6 資産クラスは以 下のどれにあてはまりますか。
A. 管理領域内のすべての会社コードに
B. 実例( クライアント から独立した) のすべての会社コードに
C. クライアント内の すべての会社コードに
D. アカウントの同じ グラフを共有するクライアント内のすべての会社コードに
Answer: C

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NO.7 次のアカウント のどれが直接に更新されいますか。
A. グループ勘定科目表中のアカウント
B. 操作の勘定科目表 中のアカウント
C. マスター勘定科目 表中のアカウント
D. カントリー勘定科 目表中のアカウント
Answer: B

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2013年10月4日星期五

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Exam Code: 000-053
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NO.1 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.2 In Scrum, what is a constantly prioritized to-do list of high-level work?
A. Sprint Backlog
B. Sprint
C. Product Backlog
D. Product
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three views does the default Eclipse perspective work items provide? (Choose three.)
A. Package Explorer
B. Team Artifacts
C. Team Central
D. My Work
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which three does a setup project action create? (Choose three.)
A. a build definition
B. a stream and component
C. work item categories
D. team areas
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Work Items presentation: Which is NOT part of the default work item presentations?
A. Plan Editor Preview
B. Inline Work Item Editor
C. Work Item Editor
D. Eclipse Work Item Editor
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three statements are true about an IBM Rational Team Concert project area? (Choose three.)
A. It has an associated process, which is a collection of practices, rules, and guidelines used to organize
and control the flow of work.
B. It has a graphical chart that illustrates business priority ranking of a project relative to other peer
projects.
C. It is typically based on a predefined process template, which can be optionally modified to satisfy any
unique needs of the project.
D. It may optionally contain team areas that define the sub-teams that work on the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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