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Exam Code: 000-M196
Exam Name: IBM (Social Software and Unified Communications Sales Mastery Test v1 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-06

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NO.1 Which software-as-service initiative has a click-to-cloud feature that enables users to have activities on
premises and in the cloud?
A. Lotus Sametime
B. Lotus Quickr
C. LotusLive
D. Lotus Notes
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the new feature in Lotus Connections 2.5 that enables users to keep the network of people they
are connected to up to date on their activities?
A. Profiles
B. Microblogs
C. Activities
D. Social bookmarks
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which new feature of the Profiles page shows status updates, enables people to go into a profile and
leave comments, and sends update notifications whenever something new is posted?
A. The Board
B. Tags
C. My Links
D. Network
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Lotus Quickr task pane, which displays a hierarchical view of document libraries, is available in
which
connector?
A. Lotus Sametime
B. Lotus Symphony
C. Microsoft Office
D. Microsoft Outlook
Answer: D

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NO.5 The new Lotus Connections wiki feature has:
A. A rich text editor that provides functions similar to a word processor ¯ s f unc ti on
B. A subscription service for members
C. A drawing function with basic shapes
D. A standard format that cannot be edited
Answer: A

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NO.6 With whom has Lotus Connections partnered to provide capabilities in human resources management?
A. SAP
B. PeopleSoft
C. Monster.com
D. IBM Global Services and SuccessFactors
Answer: D

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NO.7 Using collaboration software like Lotus Connections helps organizations work smarter by:
A. Improving information sharing
B. Improving third-party software features
C. Enhancing wikis
D. Developing Lotus Connections services
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT true of the Files feature?
A. Files can be shared with colleagues
B. Access to files can be monitored
C. Files have to be word processing documents
D. File users can leave comments about the file
Answer: C

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NO.9 What two features are common to all Same time offerings?
A. Video and presence awareness
B. Basic chat and presence awareness
C. Basic telephony and basic chat
D. Mobile capability and basic chat
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which social networking components can be added to a community?
A. Any three Lotus Connections widgets
B. Only the profiles associated with the community members
C. Only the files required by the community
D. Any file, activity, blog, wiki, feed, forum, or person associated with the community
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-979
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills - v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-06

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NO.1 A customer has a POWER5 550 with IBM i 6.1.1 with 2 loops. The first loop has a FC #5790 - PCI
Expansion Drawer, and the second loop has a FC #5802 PCIe 12X I/O Drawer. The customer wants to
upgrade to a Power 750. What are the migration issues?
A. IBM i must be upgraded to 7.1.0 first.
B. The FC #5790 - PCI Expansion drawer must be replaced.
C. A second processor card must be ordered to support an HSL loop.
D. The adapter interface on the #5790 must be upgraded to a FC #6432 12X to HSL adapter.
Answer: B

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NO.2 For what situation must a customer be prepared when using encrypted ASPs?
A. Backups of the encrypted ASP take longer to process.
B. Backups require a tape device which supports encryption.
C. Tape media used for backups of encrypted data must be of a certain type.
D. Data stored in an encrypted ASP consume 10-20% more space than in a non-encrypted ASP.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has three machines they are consolidating: An 810 with 960 CPW, 16GB of memory, and
800GB of storage.
A POWER5 520 with 2400 CPW, 16GB of memory, and 1TB of storage.
A POWER5 520 with 2400 CPW, 16GB of memory, and 1.6TB of storage.
The customer has stated they need the same resource requirements on the new machine. Which of the
following would fit all three partitions at the lowest price?
A. A 2-core POWER6 520
B. A 4-core POWER6 520
C. A 4-core POWER7 750
D. A 4-core POWER7 720
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a 2-core POWER6 520 with V5R4M5. An LTO-2 tape library is connected to a FC
#5712 Low Voltage SCSI IOA in a FC #0595 expansion unit. They want install a TS2900 LTO-4 Library.
What must be done as part of the installation?
A. Install FC #5912 SAS adapter
B. Convert the FC #0595 from HSL-2 to 12X
C. Upgrade the operating system to IBM i 6.1
D. Change the format of the LTO2 tapes to Ultrium 4
Answer: A

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NO.5 The customer would like to know if SSDs would be helpful in their configuration. The business partner
has loaded the SSD analyze tool on the customer's system. Which of the following commands will identify
if SSDs would be beneficial to the customer?
A. ANZSSDDTA
B. ANZSSDINF
C. ANZSSDPRF
D. ANZSSDDSK
Answer: A

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NO.6 What occurs when a cache battery on a disk IOA is marked as expired by the system?
A. Cache is disabled until the battery is replaced.
B. Cache is disabled until the disk adapter is IPLed.
C. Cache is disabled until a platform IPL is performed.
D. Cache is disabled until the expiration date is reset using SST.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has a 4-core Power 720 with 4 PCIe adapters in the CEC, and wants to add another adapter
to the system. Which of the following must be considered?
A. An expansion drawer must be added
B. It can be placed in an unused GX slot
C. A low-profile adapter must be selected
D. The 2-slot PCIe expansion riser must be ordered
Answer: C

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NO.8 In a SAN environment, which disk protection method provides the most resiliency against failure?
A. RAID-0 (striping)
B. RAID-1 (mirroring)
C. RAID-5 (device parity)
D. RAID-10 (mirrored arrays)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer running IBM i 6.1 on a system with a POWER6 processor wants a small guest IBM i partition
to verify upcoming changes to an application. Which of the following is required to create this partition?
A. Available disk space on hosting partition
B. Additional license keys for hosted partition
C. Licensed program 5761-SS1 option 68, IBM i Guest Enablement
D. An available port on the Host Ethernet Adapter for LAN console
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer currently owns a Power Systems server with internal disk and no expansion units. Which
option for Independent ASPs are available for this customer?
A. Switchable Independent ASP
B. Non-switchable Independent ASP
C. Expanded *SYSBAS Independent ASP
D. Enhanced Protection Independent ASP
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer with a non-partitioned Power Systems server plans to add three additional LPARs, all
running IBM i. No processor activations are needed for these new workloads. The only additional software
required is WebSphere Application Server (WAS), WebSphere Commerce suite, and Tivoli applications,
each running in their own partition. How many additional IBM i base license authorizations are needed for
the new partitions?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer is planning to add a FC #5802 12X expansion drawer to a POWER6 4-core 520. The
drawer will contain four Solid State FC #1909 small-form-factor disk drives, and nine 69GB SAS
small-form-factor disk drives. What is the correct number of FC #5903 PCIe Dual - x4 3Gb SAS RAID
adapters that will be required?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.13 A client has expressed an interest in a new POWER7 system, and has also expressed concern about
application availability. They need zero data loss and an outage window of less than 15 minutes. Which of
the following will assure the most redundancy and quickest recovery time?
A. Configure an iASP and place 2 system units on the same I/O loop.
B. Configure a duplicate system in a second location with Cross-Site Mirroring between the systems.
C. Configure a duplicate system in a second location with asynchronous remote journaling between the
systems.
D. Configure SAN storage and place the flash copy disk in a second location connected to a second
system unit.
Answer: B

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NO.14 When planning to encrypt an independent ASP (iASP), what must be considered?
A. IBM i 6.1 and POWER6 hardware is required.
B. Increased time to create the encrypted iASP.
C. Encrypted iASPs must be at least 1TB in size.
D. Only controllers which support compression can be used in an encrypted iASP.
Answer: B

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NO.15 An IBM i customer needs highly available disk storage on their new Power 750. The following
requirements have been determined:
Loop level redundant RAID-5
No disk in the CEC
Six 70GB Solid State Disks (SSDs)
Sixty six 284GB SAS disks (large form factor)
What design elements must be considered.?
A. SSD requires at least 1.5MB write cache
B. SSD and traditional disks must be in separate loops
C. SSD and traditional disks must be in different drawers
D. SSD and traditional disks must be on different controllers
Answer: D

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NO.16 A customer enterprise consists of iSeries and System i servers in several countries communicating
over an Ethernet network. All system are running V5R4 or above. The customer has written hundreds of
applications that utilize SNA protocol for communicating between the systems. The primary ERP system,
a 9406-825, will be upgraded to a Power 750. What is the least disruptive method of ensuring that their
SNA communications will continue to function after upgrading to the POWER7?
A. Implement Enterprise Extenders on each system to allow SNA applications to run over the IP network.
B. Implement Clustering between all the networked systems to allow SNA applications to run between the
cluster nodes.
C. Migrate a 10/100 Mbps Ethernet adapter from the 9406-825 to the POWER7 system and utilize it for
SNA communications.
D. Create a virtual IP address and using Proxy ARP, reference a port on the POWER7 Integrated Virtual
Ethernet adapter (IVE). Use the Virtual
IP address for SNA communications.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer has a requirement to add 60 LUNs to their POWER6 570 server. The PCIe FC #5774
2-Port fibre channel adapter will support 64 LUNs but is not available for selection in the SPT.
What is the reason?
A. The FC #5774 has been withdrawn from marketing.
B. The FC #5774 is only supported on AIX partitions.
C. The FC #5774 is only available on the POWER7 servers.
D. The FC #5774 is not supported for the version of IBM i selected.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer has developed a new Domino application and is considering deploying it on one or more
Power 720 systems which run IBM i and utilize external storage. How can the amount of memory and the
number of disk arms required to support the application be estimated?
A. Use the IBM Systems Workload Estimator to do a system sizing.
B. Collect Domino STATREP data and process it using DiskMagic(R).
C. Use Tivoli's TADDM (Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager) to size the system.
D. Import performance collection data into eConfig for correct disk arm and memory configuration.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A client has sent a current system configuration, but the listing shows several items with a mark (?) next
to them. What does this indicate?
A. The hardware was not contacted on the last IPL of the system.
B. The hardware is not supported at the current level of IBM i.
C. The hardware was not detected at the time the rack configuration was printed.
D. The hardware listed does not have current microcode levels uploaded and installed.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the rules for compatibility with previous media as it applies to LTO?
A. Read current generation and previous two. Write current generation and previous one
B. Read current generation and all previous. Write current generation and all previous
C. Read current generation and previous three. Write current generation and previous two
D. Read current generation and previous three. Write current generation and previous three
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 9A0-144
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Illustrator CS5 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-05

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NO.1 Which settings or command allows you to view a pixel grid when you are creating web graphics?
A. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 600%
B. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 100%
C. Pixel Preview on, Full Screen Mode
D. Choose View > Show Grid
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where does the new artboard appear when you create it using the New Artboard button in the Artboard
panel.?
A. To the left of all current artboards
B. To the right of all current artboards
C. Below all curent artboards
D. Above all curent artboards
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have saved a custom Keyboard Shortcut set. How can you see a list of all the keyboard shortcuts,
including your modified ones?
A. Open the Illustrator Defaults.kys file inside the Illustrator application folder in a text editor.
B. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Export Text button.
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Save button.
D. Type Keyboard Shortcuts in the Search field on the Help menu.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to use the Shift key plus any arrow keys to nudge objects 1 pica. There are 12 points in a pica.
Which value should you enter in the Keyboard Increment field in the general preference?
A. 12 pt
B. 1.2 pt
C. 120 pt
D. 0.12 pt
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which profile in the New Document dialog box has the following default settings?
RGB, 72 PPI document with Align to Pixel Grid disabled
Measurement units set to Pixels
Page orientation set to Portrait
A. Mobile and Devices
B. Web
C. Basic RGB
D. Flash Catalyst
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are working a large poster. The poster will be printed on six tiled pages, each defined by an
artboard. The artboards have been arranged with no space between them. You want to position objects
based on the upper-left corner of the upper-left artboard. Which rulers should you use?
A. Artboard
B. Global
C. Video
D. Perspective Grid
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have created a nested artboard in a multiple artboard document. Which two file formats will enable
you to save or export each artboard into an individual file? (Choose two.)
A. Adobe Illustrator (ai)
B. SVG (svg)
C. BMP (bmp)
D. Adobe FXG (fxg)
E. Photoshop (psd)
F. Windows Metafile (wmf)
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 You draw a path that contains a nonsymmetrical curved anchor point. You now want to alter the Bezier
handles of the anchor point so both sides of the curve are identical in length and angle. You are using the
Pen tool on the selected path. What should you do?
A. Press Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) and drag the anchor point.
B. Shift-click the anchor point.
C. Double-click the anchor point.
D. Click on the anchor point while pressing the Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) key.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How can you view three separate document windows side by side?
A. Choose Tile All Vertically from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
B. Choose Window > Arrange > Cascade.
C. Choose > Tile All In Grid from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You want to add some guides that will be visible only inside a particular artboard. What should you do?
A. Select the Artboard tool from the Tools panel, click on the artboard, and then drag guides out from the
horizontal or vertical document ruler.
B. Select the artboard name in the Artboard panel, and then drag a guide out from the horizontal or
vertical document ruler.
C. Click on the artboard with the Selection tool, and then Option+double-click (Mac OS) or
Alt+double-click (Windows) on the horizontal or vertical ruler.
D. Drag a guide from the horizontal or vertical document ruler, and hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt
(Windows) key before letting go of the mouse button.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You want to print a document with trim marks and a bleed value of 0.1875 inches. You choose File >
Print. What should you do to prevent printer marks from being visible in the bleed area?
A. Set the value for all bleeds to a value above 0.1875 inch.
B. Deselect Auto-Rotate and choose Tile in the Options area.
C. Enter a value of 0.1875 inch for all bleed settings and the Offset setting.
D. Select the Use Document Bleed Settings option, and deselect Color Bars and Page Information.
Answer: C

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NO.12 To see more of your document when working, you want to hide all panels except the Tools panel. What
should you do?
A. Choose Window > Arrange > Float in Window.
B. Click the Change Screen Mode button at the bottom of the Tools panel to toggle to Full Screen Mode
C. Press the Tab key.
D. Press Shift+Tab.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Using the Layers panel, you want to move objects that are selected from one layer to a locked layer by
dragging the Selected Art icon to the target layer. Which key combination should you use?
A. Command+Option-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl+Alt-drag (Windows)
B. Shift-drag
C. Command-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl-drag (Windows)
D. Option-drag (Mac OS) or Alt-drag (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.14 You want to add metadata information to the file you are working on. Which command should you
choose?
A. Window > Document Info
B. Window > Info
C. File > File Info
D. File > Document Setup
Answer: C

Adobe questions   9A0-144   9A0-144

NO.15 You have created several additional artboards while working on a document. You want to position all of
the artboards in a more logical manner within your document. What should you do?
A. Click and drag the artboards in the Artboard panel so they appear in the order you want.
B. Double-click the Artboard tool, and adjust the 9-point registration box under the Position field in the
Artboard Options dialog box.
C. Choose Object > Artboards > Rearrange.
D. Choose Artboard Options from the Artboard panel menu.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9A0-036
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe PhotoShop CS ACE Exam)
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Total Q&A: 148 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-05

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NO.1 Exhibit.
Which Character palette option controls kerning?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Answer: A

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NO.2 Exhibit.
You have created type on a path. You want to move the type along the path.
Which tool (s) should you sue to drag the type?
A.Move tool
B.Path Type tool
C.Horizontal or Vertical Type tool
D.Path Selection or Direct Selection tool
Answer: D

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NO.3 An overexposed photograph has nearly no detail in its highlights, but otherwise has acceptable tonal
balance.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use to reveal the details in the highlights?
A.Gradient Map
B.Channel Mixer
C.Shadow/Highlight
D.Brightness/Contrast
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have created a rough selection of an object in your image. You want to refine the selection by suing
quick mask with its default settings and the Brush tool.
Which statement is true?
A.Painting with white adds to the selection
B.Painting with black adds to the selection.
C.The opacity setting of the brush is irrelevant.
D.The foreground color must be either black or white.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box preserves the overall color relationship
while making highlights appear lighter and shadows appear darker?
A.Snap NeutralMidtones
B.Find Dark & Light Colors
C.Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D.Enhance Monochromatic Contrast
Answer: D

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NO.6 Exhibit.
You want to create a shape layer by drawing in a freeform manner.
Which two buttons from the Vector Tools Options Bar should you choose? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 You want to crate a diagonal elliptical marquee.
What should you do?
A.hold down the spacebar and rotate the marquee while dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool
B.create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Edit > Free Transform
C.create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Select > Transform Selection
D.While dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool, hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and rotate
the marquee
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition
before your last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A.Eraser tool
B.Edit > Undo
C.History Brush tool
D.Edit > Step Backward
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have made a feathered selection. You then repeatedly fill the selected area with different colors.
Which statement is true?
A.Traces of the earlier color fills remain at the feathered edges of the selection.
B.At the feathered edges of the selection only the image's luminosityareaffected, not its hue or saturation.
C.At the feathered edges of the selection only the image's hue and saturation area affected, not its
luminosity.
D.Though fading in opacity at the feathered edges of the selection, the newer fills completely overwrite the
earlier ones.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have saved as selection as a channel. You now want to load and reuse the selection.
What should you do?
A.drag the alpha channel into the image window
B.Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click on the alpha channel
C.Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)click on the alpha channel
D.Right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) on the channel and choose Load Channel as Selection
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a
stroke?
A.Texture
B.Scattering
C.Shape Dynamics
D.Brush Tip Shapes
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are recording an action. During its playback, you want an image's magnification to be adjusted to fit
the image on screen.
What should you do?
A.choose View > Fit on Screen
B.when you get to the point for the magnification change, choose View > Fit on Screen
C.use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Actual Pixels
D.Use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Fit on Screen
Answer: D

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NO.13 You want to modify the tonal range of an image without permanently affecting the pixels.
What should you do?
A.use Variations
B.use Auto Levels
C.use a layer style
D.use an adjustment layer
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are trying to lighten only the darkest shadows in an image by choosing Image > Adjustments >
Shadow/Highlight. You notice that lighter areas are being affected as well.
What should you do?
A.increase the Radius setting
B.decrease the Radius setting
C.increase the Tonal Width setting
D.decrease the Tonal Width setting
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are using the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image.
Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A.Radius
B.Amount
C.Tonal Width
D.MidtoneContrast
Answer: A

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NO.16 Exhibit.
In the exhibit, what does the icon on the left indicate?
A.that the action is currently being recorded
B.that all the steps in the action offer the user a dialog box
C.that one or more, but not all, steps in the action offer the user a dialog box
D.that the action is currently paused in playback, waiting for a response from the user
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which parameter can you monitor in the Status Bar?
A.the name of the active layer
B.the document's color profile
C.the name of the active document
D.the document's modification date
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are suing the Pattern Stamp tool to paint in your image.
Which tool option ensures that the pattern is applied continuously, rather than from the initial sampling
point, regardless of how many times you stop and resume painting with the pattern?
A.Flow
B.Aligned
C.Impressionist
D.Protect Texture
Answer: B

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NO.19 You want to paint a layer by using the Brush tool with an opacity setting of 50%.
Where do you change the opacity setting?
A.Status Bar
B.Layer palette
C.Brushes palette
D.Tool Options Bar
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which layer parameter can be saved when creating a Layer Comp?
A.layer styles
B.layer opacity
C.layer stacking order
D.layer blending mode
Answer: A

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NO.21 Exhibit.
In the exhibit, which gradient was used to create the result to the right?
A.Angle Gradient
B.Redial Gradient
C.Diamond Gradient
D.Reflected Gradient
Answer: C

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NO.22 What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using
BicubicInterpolation?
A.Blur
B.Sharpen
C.Add Noise
D.Auto Levels
Answer: B

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NO.23 You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to
increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A.increase the value for the black Input Level
B.decrease the value for the white Input Level
C.increase the value for the black Output Level
D.decrease the value for the white Output Level
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which items are saved as part of a workspace?
A.tool settings and palette positions
B.tool settings and keyboard shortcuts
C.palette positions and keyboard shortcuts
D.the positions of all open palettes and the toolbox
Answer: D

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NO.25 Exhibit.
Which tool can completely eliminate the white pixels in the background of the image shown in the exhibit
with a single click?
A.Eraser
B.Extract
C.Magic Eraser
D.Color Replacement
Answer: C

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NO.26 You have selected the Type tool. You want to create a new type layer overlapping a previous one.
What should you do?
A.double click with the Type tool
B.hold down the Shift key as you click with the Type tool
C.holddown the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) key as you click with the Type tool.
D.Hold down the Command (Mac OS) or Ctrl (Windows) key as you click withtheTypetool.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Exhibit.
The three images in the exhibit were scanned together. You apply the File>Automate>Crop and
Straighten Photos command.
What is the result?
A.A separate layer is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct for
its
crookedness.
B.A separate layer is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct for
its
crookedness.
C.A separate document is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct
for
its crookedness.
D.A separate document is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct
for its crookedness.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You have a photo of a green leaf. The leaf is in sharp focus and is against a blurred green background.
You want to make a selection that follows the contour of the leaf.
What should you do?
A.use the Find Edges filter
B.use the Magic Wand tool
C.use the Magnetic Lasso tool
D.choose Select >ColorRange
Answer: C

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NO.29 You are applying an action to a group of images using the Batch command. The action contains a SaveAs
TIFF command, with specific options chosen. You want the processed files to be saved with those options,
but to be renamed.
Which two options in the Batch dialog box should you choose? (Choose two.)
A.Batch Rename
B.Destination: Folder
C.Include All Subfolders
D.Destination: Save and Close
E.Override Action "Save As" Commands
Answer: AB

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NO.30 You have created several custom contours for Drop Shadow effects. You want to save the custom
contours as a set while maintaining the default contours.
What should you do?
A.from the Styles palette menu, choose Save Styles
B.from the Layer palette menu, choose New Layer Set
C.in the Preset Manager dialog box, select the contours and click on Save Set
D.whileediting contours in the Layer Style dialog box, choose Save Contours from the fly-out menu.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9A0-082
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe. Flex 3 with AIR)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-05

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NO.1 Which MXML component should be used to place content at the bottom of a Panel or TitleWindow?
A.MenuBar
B.ViewStack
C.ControlBar
D.ApplicationControlBar
Answer:C

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NO.2 An application has created an instance of the File class named dbFile. Using the embedded AIR
DBMS, you want to open the database at this location and create it if it does NOT exist.
Which syntax will create the database if it does NOT already exist?
A.var conn:SQLConnection = new SQLConnection();
conn.create( dbFile );
B.var conn:SQLConnection = new SQLConnection();
conn.createAndOpen( dbFile );
C.var statement:SQLStatement = new SQLStatement();
statement.execute( dbFile, "CREATE DATABASE" );
D.var conn:SQLConnection = new SQLConnection();
conn.open( dbFile, SQLMode.CREATE );
Answer:D

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NO.3 You plan to select data from an embedded AIR database using Flex. You do NOT want to pause the
execution of the application.
How do you asynchronously make a database available to your application?
A.All AIR SQL statements are synchronous
B.All AIR SQL statements are asynchronous
C.Use executeAsync method of the SQLStatement class
D.Use the openAsync method of the SQLConnection class
Answer:D

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NO.4 You want to create a custom Alert dialog by using the PopUpManager. You want the dialog to be modal
and float above all existing controls in the Flex application.
Which container should you use?
A.PlotChart
B.Application
C.TitleWindow
D.PopUpManagerChildList
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which two statements defines an MXML component that will display all its children vertically (Choose
Two)?
A.<mx:VBox />
B.<mx:HBox />
C.<mx:Box direction="vertical" />
D.<mx:Canvas layout="vertical" />
E.<mx:Canvas verticalAlign="true" />
Answer:A B C

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NO.6 You have several hundred thumbnails of photos. You want to create a scrollable grid such that only the
photos that have been viewed are instantiated.
Which container should you use?
A.Grid
B.Panel
C.HBox
D.TileList
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which ActionScript class do you use to define the location and name of a local database file?
A.flash.filesystem.File
B.flash.data.SQLStatement
C.flash.data.SQLConnection
D.flash.data.SQLIndexSchema
Answer:A

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NO.8 How do you retrieve the result of an SQL statement executed with a local database managed by AIR?
A.Call the SQLStatement class's getResult() method.
B.Examine the value returned from the SQLStatement class's next() method.
C.Examine the value returned from the SQLStatement class's execute() method.
D.Handle the SQLStatement class's result event and examine the event object's properties.
Answer:A

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NO.9 An application uses the RemoteObject MXML component to connect to a Java object. The application
needs to call multiple methods of the Java object each returning a different data type.
Which tag allows you to define individual result handlers for each object of the Java method?
A.The result tag
B.The method tag
C.The operation tag
D.You can only have one result handler
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which AIR class is used to execute SQL commands on an SQLConnection instance?
A.SQLMode
B.SQLSchema
C.SQLStatement
D.SQLConnection
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which statement is most accurate?
DmapAutofocus...
A. adjusts the size of the square grid of pixels that's placed in front of the light for the first pass
Raytrace
Shadow calculation
B. is the attribute that controls the focal point used in depth of field calculation
C. controls the shadow anti-aliasing level used for the Raytrace Shadow calculation
D. is the attribute that automatically controls where the Dmap will be focused.
Answer: B

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NO.2 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 The shading network in a Normal 2DTexture Map is made up of which of the following?
A. One file texture node and a projection node that defines the texture's placement
B. One file texture node and the place2DTexture node that defines the texture's placement.
C. Two place 2DTexture nodes.
D. One place 2DTexture node and one place 3Dtexture node
Answer: B

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NO.5 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.7 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.8 "Swimming" is a potential problem with Projected textures. This is an effect where it looks like
the
animated object is moving or 'swimming' through the texture.
What can be done to fix this? Select all that apply.
A. If the object is just transforming and not deforming, parent the 3D Placement node to the
animated object
B. If the object is deforming, you can use a Texture Reference object or convert the file to a 2D
texture
C. If the object is deforming, you can bake the deformation by using Edit > Keys > Bake
Simulation
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 When choosing an NISC Video Image preset, in addition to image width and height, which
other setting is changed
A. Pixel Aspect Ratio
B. Renderable Camera
C. File format becomes TGA
D. Device Aspect Ratio
Answer: A

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NO.10 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 299-01
Exam Name: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional - Network Performance Management)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 245 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-05

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NO.1 Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts
generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the
policy
can treat as deviation from normalbehavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for
example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by
installing and
correctly configuring the 'Cascade Connector' agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment
Answer: E

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NO.4 What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler
have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when
you
'view members' of this 'Undefined' group'.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you
click the
'show advanced settings' checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Answer: C

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NO.9 Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named "Round-trip time".
C. Use the View search box and enter "round".
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can
be
determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of
performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and
Cascade
will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance
problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to
detect
security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested
application
delivery paths.
Answer: B

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NO.11 For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
Answer: D

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NO.13 When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate
that
Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among
Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway
and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group
Type.
Answer: A

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NO.16 If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the "Server Delay" column but shows no value
for
"Server Delay" in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure "Server Delay" and not functioning correctly.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could
be
because. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and
Cascade
Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in "passthru" mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade
Pilot to
connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Cascade Profiler's Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade
to report on which of the following. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the
following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with
'deduplication' enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination)
without
'deduplication' enabled.
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both
ingress
and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance
characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does
not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
Answer: A,D

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