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Exam Code: C_BOSUP_90
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 How can you find the Root Cause Analysis within SAP Solution Manager?
A. Use the appropriate work center transaction code.
B. Fill in the search box with keyword Root Cause Analysis.
C. Open a new application with default settings.
D. Use the left side menu.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the Software Developer Network (SDN)?
A. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing information about code strategy for third
party products.
B. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete information about
the underlying code of the SAP Product suite.
C. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete collection of
content and collaboration dedicated to SAP technology.
D. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a tool that is available only to the SAP developer team to
brainstorm solutions for code level issues.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is SAP EarlyWatch Check?
A. It is a fully automatically generated report.
B. It is a document that customers follow to check their platform.
C. It is a service delivered onsite.
D. It is a service delivered remotely.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in one
message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 If you want to add an SAP or non-SAP system to your landscape, which transaction do you need to
run?
A. SOLMAN_WORKCENTER
B. MSY_SETUP
C. SMSY_SETUP
D. SMSY
Answer: D

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NO.10 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to reproduce the
issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP systems.?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution Manager
installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What does Mission-Critical Support within SAP Enterprise Support include? (Choose two)
A. Ramp-up support
B. Robust Service Level Agreements (SLA)
C. 7 x 24 root cause analysis
D. SAP system backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much until more
information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 7004.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s p r og r a mm ed da t abase sho w n i n t he exh i b it and AC 1 = 9 , ove r w h i ch R L I w ill a ca ll
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s D I D r ange t o t he A tt endan t.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s d i a li ng p l an sho w n i n t he exh i b it and an exa m p l e f o r it s r equ ir e m en t s :
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

Avaya original questions   7004.1   7004.1

NO.8 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3304
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer has Business Advocate (BA) features turned on.
Which technique can be used to protect the predetermined level of service to a valued skill, II volumes or
agent staffing levels change abruptly?
A. queue priority levels
B. reserve agents
C. skill preference levels
D. percent allocation
Answer: D

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NO.2 A supervisor would like to have their agents automatically log out at a specific time.
Which administration form is used to configure this functionality?
A. Hunt Group Form
B. Agent LoginID Form
C. Feature-Related System-Parameters Form
D. Station Form
Answer: B

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NO.3 A supervisor wants to endure that a specified group of agents logout at a specified time during the work
week.
How can this be accomplished?
A. with After Call Work (ACW) Agent Considered Idle
B. with Forced Agent Logout Time
C. with Interruptible Aux Notification Timer (sec)
D. with Maximum Time Agent in ACW before logout (sec)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three statements about circular hunt groups are true? (Choose three) A. The next call to the hunt
group is offered to the next station in the members list in a round robin fashion, starting with the first
administered station.
B. The call distribution is dependent of how long stations have been idle.
C. The call distribution is independent of how long stations have been idle.
D. The next tall to the hunt group will be routed to the next agent (station) if the previous agent did not
answer the last call.
E. The next call to the hunt-group will be routed to the same agent (station) if that agent did not answer
the last call.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 A call center operations manager wants agents to manually enter a code to identify the reason for being
in auxiliary (AUX) work status.
Which feature must be activated on the system-parameters custom-options to allow this?
A. Call Work Codes
B. Authorization Codes
C. Reason Codes
D. AUX State Codes
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are three added features when you upgrade form Basic Avaya Call Center to Avaya Call Center
Elite.? (Choose three.)
A. Service Level Maximize
B. Advocate
C. Hunt Group
D. Call Management System (CMS)
E. Agent Selection (EAS)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 While configuring the Service Observing feature, which three forms should be configured and/or
verified?
A. System Parameters
B. Class of Service
C. Feature-Related System Parameters
D. Class of restriction
E. Station
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 Which three monitor commands are available with Basic Call Management System (BCMS)? (Choose
three)
A. Monitor bcms agent
B. Monitor bcms skill
C. Monitor bcms split
D. Monitor bcms system
E. Monitor bcms vector
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which two statements describe the benefits of the Business Advocate (BA) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It enablesrouting of calls to the agent that is most idle.
B. It dynamically matches a customer to an optimal agent.
C. It provides conditional routing of calls to agent queues.
D. It allows for dynamic reporting of call center activities in custom methods.
E. It uses advanced algorithms to efficiently route calls to agents.
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 What provides built-in real and historical reporting capabilities for the call center, including reports for
Splits/Skill, Agents, Vector Directory Numbers (VDNs) and trunk groups?
A. VvStats
B. Service level maximize (SLM)
C. Basic Call management System (BCMS)
D. Automated Number Identification (ANI)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 3001
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Configuration and Maintenance Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which license will enable VoiceMail Pro database interactions?
A. Basic Edition
B. Essential Edition
C. Preferred Edition
D. Advanced Edition
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is installing an IP500v2 with one hundred 1600 series IP Phones. The customer has an
existing Juniper VPN gateway for their remote workers and would like to provide hard telephones for their
remote workers to login at home.
What is needed to accomplish this?
A. modified 46xxsettings.scr file
B. VPN gateway for each remote worker
C. 1616 IP Phone with VPN software
D. modified 46vpnsettings.txt file
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has an IP500v2 and would like the ability to monitor the IP Office system resources from
anywhere in the network. Which two will allow thorn to do this? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Telnet session to the IP Office
C. Web session to the IP Office address
D. SSH session to the IP Office address
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 After an IP Office upgrade, the customer reports that "Please Wait" continuously appears on the 5420
DS telephone.
What will resolve the problem?
A. Start the IP Office Manager application.
B. The 5420 DS is corrupted and must be replaced.
C. If IP Office does not restart correctly. Power-off and power-on IP Office and the problem will be
corrected.
D. The CCR lost connection to IP Office. Wait until the LED on the CCR status turns green again and the
telephone will start to work.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .What is the format for an ARS short rode to dial a telephone number on a SIP line with Trunk ID 20?
A. Number: N;
Telephone Number: N ± @ s i pp r pv i de r. co
Feature: Dial Line Group 20
B. Number: N
Telephone Number: N @sipprpvider.com
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
C. Number: N;
Telephone Number: Nsi7204441000
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
D. Number: N;
Telephone Number: N sipprpvider
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
Answer: A

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NO.6 On the IP Office SIP line, the customer has marked the Network Topology to "None". The IP Office
STUN program is run on IP Office LAN1 and the results show "Symmetric Firewall" on LAN2.
How would IP Office route SIP calls?
A. SIP Calls will be routed by the IP Office NAT table.
B. SIP Calls will be routed by the IP Office routing table.
C. SIP calls will be routed on LAN 1 because "Symmetric Firewall" provides "Security".
D. SIP calls will be routed on I AN 2 because "Open Internet" is a direct connection to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.7 From which application are log files required for escalating issues to Avaya support?
A. Manager Report
B. Customer Call Status
C. System Monitor
D. SMDR
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which application can be used in conjunction with one-X Portal to provide full softphone and call
handling capability for users?
A. IP Office Voice Portal
B. IP office Video Softphone
C. IP Office Phone Manager Pro
D. IP Office Softconsole
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer has UMS enabled on their VoiceMail Pro server. They wish to use Microsoft Outlook to
retrieve voicemail messages and are not using Microsoft Exchange as the message store.
Which protocol must be configured in Microsoft Outlook to access their messages?
A. POP3
B. IMAP
C. HTTP
D. MAPI
Answer: B

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NO.10 The Alarm Set action in Voicemail Pro allows an alarm call to be set up and played to a specified
extension at a specified time. The telephone will display "Alarm" and the prompt that will play is. "This is
an alarm call please hang up".
Which description is true?
A. The telephone display message cannot be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone but cannot use a .wav file.
B. The telephone display message cannot be changed.
The prompt cannot be changed.
C. The telephone display message can be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone but cannot use a .wav file.
D. The telephone display message can be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone or can use a .wav file.
Answer: D

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NO.11 When testing an implementation, users are attempting to dial out of the system (outbound tall) and they
receive the message Unobtainable
on the display of their telephones, and the tall fails.
What is the cause of the problem.?
A. The user rights are not defined.
B. The upgrade license is not valid in the IP Office.
C. The lines on the system are out of service.
D. The users have not been assigned a direct dial code.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Where can additional IP Office Service User logins be setup?
A. the IP Office Softphone Application
B. the IP Office System Monitor Application
C. the IP Office Manager Network Configuration
D. the IP Office Manager Security Settings
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. Class "A" 24 Volt power supply
C. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
D. 1151D1 individual Power Supply and the 115D2 Individual Power Supply with Buttery Backup
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Calls into the IP500 are not ringing to the expected user.
Which statement correctly describes how the Call routing is validated?
A. Use the System Status Application (SSA) to see what user the call is ringing to.
B. Use Customer Call Status (CCS) to see what user the call is ringing to.
C. Capture a System Monitor trace and escalate to Avaya for an answer.
D. Wait until the system Is Idle and place test calls so you can hear which telephone is ringing.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which application will allow a system administrator to see historical inbound and outbound traffic
information on a trunk in the IP Office?
A. Advanced Summary Reporter
B. CallDetail Reporter
C. System Status Application
D. Historical Reporting Application
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6001-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Session Manager and System Manager)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 An IMS type feature server has been installed by another administrator beam. They
have also
configured Session Manager to route all incoming calls for user John Smith to be routed to
the new
feature server, It appears from traces and capturing network traffic that Session Manager
does indeed
route john Smith s incoming calls to the feature server, but that the feature server does not
appear to take
any action besides returning the request bock to Session Manager Which field has been
NCORRECTLY
configured?
A. Application Handle
B. Entity Link port
C. Orignating Application Sequence
D. Terminating Application Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which definition describes a Session Manager community?
A. A community represents a group of users in a single location or group of locations. A
community helps
define maximum numbers of users in each location for purposes of bandwidth management,
quality of
service, and Call Admissions Control
B. A community is a group of peer Session Manager instances in an enterprise organization.
Each
Session Manager in the community automatically shares configuration and policy data,
meaning that
administrators settings and policies only once and that all Session Managers will process
requests in the
same way
C. A community represents all SIP Entities known to a Session Manager it is through the
community that
data from SIP Entities can be collected and merged, ready tor easy analysis
D. A community is a sub-divided group of users in which half of the group make use of one
Session
Manager as their Primary while the other half make use of a different Session Manager as
their Primary
Each half also makes use of the other Session Manager as their Secondary for purposes of
redundancy
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which component of the Communication Profile can be changed by modifying a user
via
Communication Profile Edition?
A. Communication Address
B. Session Manager Profile
C. Endpoint Profile
D. Messaging Profile
Answer: B

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NO.4 How is Call Admission Control enabled?
A. Call Admission Control is enabled in the SIP Entity by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per fall
and Managed Bandwidth
B. Call Admission Control is enabled on the Session Manager instance by specifying a value
for Average
bandwidth per can and Managed Bandwidth
C. Call Admission Control is enabled on a Location by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth
D. Call Admission Control is enabled on an Entity Link specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth on the Location screen in Session Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which URL should be used to access the web console to deploy System Manager?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/Webconsole
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two outcomes of running SMnetSetup on a server that has an existing
installation of Session
Manager? (Choose two)
A. The network and date/time is configured on the server
B. A system administrator login will be created
C. The same version of the Session Manager software currently installed is re-installed
D. The current version of the Session Manager software is upgraded
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which two statements describe how adaptations affect the routing of a request?
(Choose two)
A. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered incoming
adaptation
B. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
C. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered incoming
adaptation
D. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
Answer: A, D

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NO.8 What is the benefit of using the Communication Profile Editor to modify users?
A. It allows an administrator to change all the values of the Communication Profile settings
for multiple
SIP System Manager users at one time
B. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager user at one tine
C. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple SIP users
at one time
D. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple users at
one time
E. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager users at one time
Answer: E

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NO.9 When you upgrade Session Manager and you had been using the hardware SM-100,
the network
connection of the SM-100 must be moved to which port on the Session Manager server?
A. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 2
B. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 3
C. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 1
D. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 0
Answer: B

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NO.10 Session Manager has a routing policy that routes calls made to any number beginning
with 100
to SIP
Entity X. However, sip: 1001@avaya com
is the SP communication profile address of user Y, User Y is
not currently registered (signed in )with Session Manager What will happen if Session
Manager receives
a call addressed to sip 1001@avaya com
and exactly why?
A. It depends on the time ranges of the policy If the call is placed inside a defined tine range
for the policy,
the call will be routed to destination X If not, then Session Manager will attempt to route the
call to user Y.
Since Y is not registered, the call will timeout, and the call will fail
B. Since user Y is not currently registered, the call will be handled by the routing policy. If the
call is placed
during a time rage specified by the call policy, then the call will be routed to destination X. If
not, then the
call will fail
C. Since the destination URI matches a communication profile SIP handle, Session Manager
will not use
the routing policy in handing the call The call will fail since user Y is not currently registered
D. Since the destination URI matches a routing policy dial pattern, Session Manager will give
no
consideration to the user Y registration status, xx the call is made during a time rage for the
policy, the
policy will be applied and the will be routed to be destination X. If not, then the orignal URL of
sip
1001@avaya com will be used as the destination to which Session Manager will route the
call
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6006-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are
true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different
racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical
pace between
them.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main
location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be
used for
this deployment.?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)?
(Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command statuslicense-V .
B. From the CM SAT issue the command list configuration software-versions .
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command systat .
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options .
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 A customer users S8510 server with a Media Gateway he necessary components or
adding additional
DCP phones to the system, including a new G650. Which three tasks need to be performed
while
installing the additional requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cable the two G650 carriers with a TDMLAN Bus Extender cable
B. Se the proper carrier address ID for the second G650 carrier
C. Add additional 2GB of RAM to the SB5 10 server.
D. Remove the right ITMLAN bus terminator from the bottom GB50 carrier and install the bus
terminator
at the left end of the TDWLAN bus on the G650 carrier directly above.
E. The new digital line card must be installed in slot 2 of the new G650.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 A technician is testing calls from IP phones at a remote location operating on a
G450VLSP gateway to
main location served by S83XXG450 over the WLAN Busy tones are received when multiple
calls
between the two locations are already active. Two network regions and G711 and G729
codec server has
been set up Which two steps must be taken to ensure the branch IP phones are using he
minimum WAN
bandwidth when calling main location stations?
(Choose two.)
A. Assign branch IP Phones to the G450 LSP as its call server in ip-network-region 2 form.
B. Assign G.729 as primary codec in the Station Form for the branch IP phones.
C. Use the ip-network-map form to assign the branch IP phones to network region2.
D. Create a third Codec Set and assign to the G450 Gateway in ip-network-region 2 form.
E. Verify calls between NRI and NR2 use G.729 Codec in ip-network-region 1 form.
Answer: CE

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NO.6 A Customer has 1200 IP phones in their solution and they are looking for redundancy
and load
balancing How many CLAN s are recommended for their IP phone registration and signaling?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Avaya G450 Media Gateway can be configured to function as a DHCP (Dynamic
Host
Configuration Protocol) client DHCP client enable the G450 to receive an IP address from a
DHCP server,
according to the DHCP client-server protocol. As an option, the G-450 DHCP client can also
request to
receive which three types of IP-related information? (Choose three.)
A. a list all H 248 Media Gateways in the system
B. a Domain Name
C. a list of default routers
D. a list of all registered IP Phones
E. a list of available DNS servers
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system,
which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer asks that the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G450
Media Gateway
Primary Management interface (PM) be verified. Which two commands identity the
information requested?
(Choose two.)
A. show ip-info
B. show running-config
C. show interface vlan (vlan #)
D. show configuration media-gateway
E. show system
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 6007
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A technician has completed the installation of an Avaya ACE™ on Linux High Availability (HA)
configuration. While performing the final verification, it is discovered that a failover has occurred to
the Standby server. To determine what caused the failover, where can more detailed information
be obtained?
A. Review performance metrics online using the Avaya ACE™GUI (Performance - System
Metrics).
B. Review the troubleshooting documents from the Avaya ACE™ GUI (Help -
ProductDocumentation-Troubleshooting).
C. Review query active alarms using Linux commands.
D. Review log files from the AvayaACE™GUI (Fault-Logs Download).
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician is Installing an Avaya ACE™ Office Add in Desktop Enablement solution and has
confirmed that all of the system requirements are met. Which step is first in the Office Add-in
deployment process?
A. Install Internet Information Services (IIS) Version 6.0 on the administrative PC.
B. Install the Application Integration Engine (AIE) platform software.
C. Install the Avaya ACE™ DCEConfigurator.
D. Build the Office Add-in install package.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which mode must Application Integration Engine (AIE) be installed to support Web Browser
and
Office Add-ins?
A. IWA mode
B. HA mode
C. Clustered mode
D. Non-IWA mode
Answer: A

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NO.4 A corporation wants to improve productivity of its mobile sales workforce. A key concern is
the
ability to forward calls from a primary office number to any other device that is directly reachable
via Direct Inward Dialing, such as another office telephone, home telephone, mobile telephone, or
even some hotel telephones. Which Avaya ACE™ solution matches the key capabilities that the
customer requires?
A. Hot Desking
B. Event Response Manager
C. MessageDrop and Blast
D. Web Browser and Office Add-ins
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement describes the purpose of the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. It provides the environment to run web-enabled e-business applications.
B. It stores web user profile data and call session information.
C. It delivers a telephony presence and messaging services to web clients.
D. It provides the interface for SIP communications.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer plans to deploy an Avaya ACETM Application Integration Engine (AIE) version 3.2.
As
part of the definition of the project scope of work, the technician wants to ensure the appropriate
operating system is installed on the host server.
Which software operating systems (OS) is supported?
A. 32-bitor 04-bit Windows 2003 OS
B. 32-bit or 04-bit Windows 2008 OS
C. 32-bit Windows 2003 OS or64-bit Windows 2008 R2 OS
D. 64-bit Windows 2008 OS only
Answer: C

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NO.7 A technician logs into an Avaya ACE™ system to select the IP address for the ACE™ system.
Under the General tab, the technician navigates to the ACE™ Core Information section to
determine if this system can support High Availability. Which Avaya ACE™ RIs 3.0 Core
installation type supports High Availability?
A. Standalone and System Platform
B. System Platform only
C. Standalone only
D. Windows2008R2Server
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician has installed an Avaya ACE™ and Avaya Aura® solution. An Avaya Aura® TR/87
service provider is configured and is in service.
A web application is sending Avaya ACE™ a MakeCall request with a calling party of
tel:16135558755 and called party of tel:16135558754. The call is not connected as expected even
though the correct Avaya Aura® service provider is being selected on Avaya ACE™.
What is a likely problem with the Avaya Aura® service provider configuration on Avaya ACE™?
A. The callingand called party rules are not inserting a $ after the tel: in the translation rules.
B. The calling and called party rules are not removing a